ITIL Foundation Exam Practice

 Please note:
Whilst these practice exam questions may be used to test
your knowledge of the ITIL Service Delivery and Support
processes and to prepare for the ITIL Foundation
examination, It is strongly recommended that you attend a
formal and recognized training course and that you purchase
and study the ITIL Service Delivery & Support texts.
These materials are neither endorsed nor recognized by
CCTA or the OGC.
ITIL Foundation Exam Practice
Version No.1
I. Which of the following describes the normal sequence of events for fault resolution?
A. Problem- Incident- Change- Known Error.
B. Incident- Problem- Change- Known Error.
C. Incident- Problem- Known Error- Change.
D. Problem- Incident- Known Error- Change.
Answer: C
2. A program must be amended to correct a fault.
Which process formally approves this amendment?
A. Software Maintenance
B. Problem Management
C. Release Management
D. Change Management
Answer: D
3. A delivery of PCs is received in the goods inward department. The status of the PCs
has to be changed from “ordered’ to “in stock”. Which process is responsible for
recording this change of status?
A. Goods Inward Department
B. Problem Management.
C. Configuration Management.
D. Change Management
Answer: C
4. Which of these tasks are regarded as proactive?
1. Collecting statistics regarding Known Errors.
2. Reviewing incident and problem analysis reports to identify trends.
3. Preventing problems in one service being replicated in another.
4. Identifying the root cause of incidents.
A. l & 4.
B. 1,2 & 3.
C. 2 & 3.
D. l & 3.
Answer: C
5. A customer rings the Service Desk to report that the expected output has not
appeared on the monitor. When is the priority of this incident decided for the first time?
A When the Service Desk logs the incident
B When the solution is known and can be implemented
C When the reason why the output has not appeared is investigated
D When the user is contacted for the second time
Answer: A
6. What is the best description of an incident?
A. Any event that deviates or may cause a deviation from the (expected) standard
working of an IT service.
B Any report from a user to the Service Desk, if it is related to IT.
C Any situation in which the Management takes measures to improve the service.
D Any contact a user or technician makes with the Service Desk.
Answer: A
7. Consider the following metrics:
1. Number of changes implemented during the period, in total and by CI.
2. No. of changes backed out, by reason.
3. The number of known errors cleared.
4. Number of change reviews carried out
Which would be those collected and monitored by a Change Manager?
A. 1, 2 & 3.
B. 2, 3 & 4.
C. 1, 2 & 4.
D. All 4of the above
Answer: C
8. Security is one of the significant elements of …
A. Capacity Management.
B. Availability Management.
C. Resource Management.
D. Service Level Management.
Answer: B
9. Which one of the following is NOT a task of Capacity Management?
A. Monitoring overall performance of the IT infrastructure.
B. Sizing and or modeling of new applications.
C. Negotiating capacity levels with customers.
D. Assessing the possible benefits of new technology to the Organisation.
Answer: C
10. At company X the cause of repetitive software failure is found after intensive
research. The supplier is working on a “fix” (a piece of software that will eliminate the
problem). The user observes the same failure again and reports this to the Service
Desk. The Service Desk has already been informed about the situation by Problem
Management.
Must the service desk register this as an incident?
A. yes, all reports must be registered as an incident
B. yes, the user may have diagnosed the situation wrongly
C. no, as a known error has been identified
D. no, the problem is known and doesn’t have to be investigated
Answer: A
11. Only one of the following statements is FULLY correct. Which one?
A. Capacity plans answer specific questions, such as the best way to improve
performance for a particular user.
B. Capacity plans propose solutions to performance problems.
C. Capacity plans show when future enhancements will be required and give an
indication of
how much they will cost.
D. Capacity plans collect information about how heavily devices are used.
Answer: C
12. How often should Service Management processes be reviewed for effectiveness and
efficiency?
A. Never, we got them right when we wrote them
B. On a regular basis as they should try to reflect the business need
C. Only when they stop working
D. Once per year
Answer: B
13. During the implementation of a new word processing system on a number of• Local
Area Networks it transpires that a unique license file must be installed on each Local
Area Network for the system to work correctly.
Which process is responsible for ensuring that the right license file reaches its
destination?
A. Configuration Management
B. Network Management
C. Release Management
D. Change Management.
Answer: C
14. Consider the following statements:
1. A Customer based SLA describes a single service for all an organizations customers.
2. An Operational Level Agreement is likely to be written in customer-orientated
language
3. SLAs must be written using legal language because they are so important
Which of these statements are correct?
A. l and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. all of the statements
D. none of the statements
Answer: D
15. Which of these is NOT a function of Financial Management for IT Services
A. Monitoring costs.
B. Reviewing IT Finance processes.
C. Establishing charging policy.
D. Building a cost model.
Answer: C
16. A new service is to go live tomorrow.
Which of the following should be available at the Service Desk?
1. The Service Level Manager to take the heat out of any angry confrontations very
quickly.
2. Scripts.
3. The appropriate change schedule.
4. Network specialists.
A. l & 4.
B. 2 & 3.
C. 1, 2 & 3.
D. All of them.
Answer: B
17. Your organisation has just entered into an IT Service Continuity agreement. The
agreement allows for recovery of your mission critical services at a third party facility in a
timeframe of 2 days. Under lTlL guidelines what would you term this method of
recovery?
A. Quick
B. Immediate
C. Intermediate
D. Gradual
Answer: C
18. Every configuration item in a configuration Management database (CMDB) must
have a unique reference so that ;
A. audits can be executed using electronic equipment.
B. the same description can be used for several independent configuration items in the
CMDB.
C. no mistakes can occur in the identification of the configuration items when the CMDB
is used.
D. new configuration items can be registered quickly in the CMDB.
Answer: C
19. What is the primary goal of the processing of an incident?
A. To trace the root cause of the incident as soon as possible.
B. To redirect this incident to the appropriate specialist as soon as possible.
C. To restore the service as soon as possible.
D. To register the incident as soon as possible.
Answer: C
20. In which cases must a change review take place after; the implementation of a
change?
A. If another incident of the same type occurs again.
B. Always.
C. At the request of the person who submitted the change request.
D. Randomly
Answer: B
21. A Service Desk is inundated with phone calls from customers who cannot work any
more. After questioning callers it soon becomes clear that an important system on a
central UNIX server has failed. For which of the following actions is the Service Desk
NOT responsible?
A. The categorisation of the incoming calls.
B. Identifying the root cause of the failure.
C. The prioritisation of the incoming calls.
D. The escalation of the incidents.
Answer: B
22. In an Organisation with a virtual Service Desk which is most important?
A. That all staff speak the same language.
B. That all incident recording is via the 24-hour clock.
C. That they share a common means of recording information for analysis.
D. That the Service Desk staff have access to a common pool of problem solvers.
Answer: C
23. Which of the following items are most likely to be capital costs?
1. computer equipment
2. buildings
3. electricity costs
4. staff salaries
A. 2and3
B. land2
C. 3and4
D. land4
Answer: B
24. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Release Management process?
A. implementing revised software at remote locations
B. storage of authorised software in a secure location
C authorising changes to software
D. auditing the DHS.
Answer: C
25. Which one of the following combinations of processes do ITIL guidelines recommend
we plan together?
A. Configuration Management, Problem Management, Change Management
B. Incident Management, Change Management, Release Management
C. Configuration Management, Change Management, Release Management
D. Service Desk, Configuration Management, Release Management
Answer: C
26. Problem Management needs to deal with several other functions to carry out their
work; with which of the following is it likely to communicate least?
A. Service Desk
B. Third Party Maintainers
C Users
D Technical Support
Answer: C
27. The allocation of a priority to all incidents means that
A. Individual technical departments know which faults to fix first
B. Users know exactly when their own problems will be dealt with
C. More Management information is available
D. Resources can be assigned to best meet business need.
Answer: D
28. The Change Management process should ensure that:
A. changes are only permitted after all those who might be affected have had the
opportunity to express their views
B. only changes which have been approved by the full Change Advisory Board are
allowed
C. keep a record of all RFCs and their current status
D. all testing is performed by programmers
Answer: C
29. When a user logs with the Service Desk that response times are not within the levels
laid down in service level agreements, the Service Desk will :
A. log the incident and pass it to the Service Level Manager for restoration, as it may be
a breach of the agreement
B. log the incident and refer it to the problem manager since any breach of the SLA is a
problem rather than an incident
C. log the incident and seek diagnostic information
D. ask the caller to repeat the transaction concerned to see if the response time has
improved and if response time has improved, do not log as an incident
Answer: C
30. Which of the following are amongst the main responsibilities of Availability
Management?
1. To plan for and monitor the availability of IT services agreed in SLA’S.
2. To negotiate the availability levels in SLA’S.
3. To record details of unavailability events.
4. To initiate changes to the infrastructure to prevent failures of availability.
A. l & 2.
B. 3 & 4.
C. All of them.
D. l & 4.
Answer: D
31. Consider the following statements:
1. A service level agreement is a written agreement between the service provider and
the customers.
2. Negotiation of service levels must involve the customers of the services involved
3. Underpinning contracts must be capable of supporting targets agreed in SLA’s.
Which of the above are correct?
A. l & 3 only
B. none
C. l & 2 only
D all
Answer: D
32. Which of these statements are correct?
1. A primary difference between an inventory and a CMDB is that a CMDB will include
relationships between Cls.
2. A CMDB will contain physical copies of Cls.
A. I only
B. 2 only
C. both
D. neither
Answer: A
33. Which of the following duties would not appear in a job description for a Service
Level Manager?
A. Creates and maintains a catalogue of all existing services offered
B. Negotiates and agrees the initial contents and service levels for each
SLA
C. Calculates the charges for each service, to be included in SLAs
D. Analyses and reviews all achieved service levels and compares with SLAs
Answer: C
34. Which of the following statements about ITSC is not true?
A. Immediate recovery of an IT service will take place in under 24 hours.
B. Testing and awareness are parts of the Operational Management of an ITSC plan.
C Countermeasures should be implemented before a BIA is carried out.
D. Considering potential threats to an IT service is key to risk analysis.
Answer: C
35. Which one of the following statements is the most complete description of the key
tasks of the Problem Management process?
A. Problem Management consists of error control and initiating requests for change.
B. Problem Management corrects known errors, under the control of Change
Management and providing Management information on problems.
C. Problem Management consists of problem and error control and the Management of
information about these.
D. Problem Management consists of providing second line support and acting as
coordinator for other specialist support staff.
Answer: C
36. Release Management will :
A. Ensure physical copies of software are stored in the CMDB
B. Design effective procedures for the release of software changes
C. Ensure that all software changes are assessed
D. Only make delta changes in an emergency
Answer: B
37. Which of the following combinations of processes and concepts is correct?
1. Capacity Management A. OLA
2. Availability Management B. Modeling
3. Financial Management for IT C. Differential Charging
4. Service Level Management D. Risk
A. 1-B 2-D 3-C 4-A
B. 1-B 2-C 3-A 4-D
C 1-D 2-A 3-C 4-B
D. 1-C 2-D 3-A 4-B
Answer: A
38. Which of the following is not a valid method of charging?
A. Cost Plus
B. Fixed
C. Going Rate
D. Unit Cost
Answer: D
39. The CAB/EC has the responsibility for
A. acting as a preliminary filter for all requests
B. considering urgent changes
C. performing a quality assurance function on Change Management
D. implementing the changes approved by the full CAB.
Answer: B
40. Which statement is entirely true:
A. A dry ITSC test will involve use of real IT equipment without user data
B. Unannounced tests are only performed to see if internal IT staff are prepared
C. The ITSC plan does not need to be distribution controlled
D. ITSC feeds into the wider topic of Business Continuity Management
Answer: D
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No.2
I. Service Desk staff need:
I A good telephone manner
2 Some technical appreciation of the supported services
3 Awareness of the likely business impact of service incidents
A 1 & 2
B I, 2 & 3
C 2 & 3
D 1 & 3
Answer: B
2. Which of the following can be OMITTED from an urgent software release in
exceptional circumstances?
A. Undertaking full testing
B. Updating the CMDB
C. Incrementing the version number
D. Putting the amended version in the DSL
Answer: A
3. A good Incident Management process will:
A Ensure that error corrections are treated as urgent changes
B Diagnose the underlying cause of incidents quickly
C Restore normal service operation as quickly as possible following an incident
D All of the other answers
Answer: C
4. The primary responsibility of Incident Control is:
A Keeping customers informed of future problems
B Matching incidents with known errors
C Restoring service following incidents
D Raising multiple incidents to Problem Management
Answer: C
5. Which of the following statements best describes the level to which CIs would
normally be broken down:
A The lowest possible level
B The level at which they will be independently installed, changed or replaced
C The level which best facilitates the identification of the root cause of all
System incidents
D The level at which it is possible to identify the suppliers of all sub-components
Answer: B
6. Which of the following activities is NOT the responsibility of Problem Management?
A Co-coordinating major problem reviews
B Determining the root cause of incidents
C Providing management information on incidents, problems and known errors
D Implementing error resolutions
Answer: D
7. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A Charging is required in order to cost IT services
B Budgeting and accounting for IT services is essential for effective Service
Management
C It is better to budget and account for IT services before implementing charging
D Charging may lead to the recovery of costs
Answer: A
8. Which of the following is necessary in order to start IT Services Continuity planning?
A Include continuity measures in Change Management procedures
B Identify appropriate countermeasures
C Conduct a business impact analysis
D Establish a contract with an intermediate recovery provider
Answer: C
9. Status Accounting is an important part of which process?
A IT Financial Management
B Change Management
C Incident Management
D Configuration Management
Answer: D
10. Which of the following is NOT a technique usually associated with Availability
Management?
A Auto error detection
B Mirroring
C Analysing data
D Queuing theory
Answer: D
11. Which of the following statements is true?
A Service Level Agreements are between user departments and technical support
providers and are written in business language
B Operational Level Agreements are between internal service providers and may be
written in technical language
C Operational Level Agreements are between Service Level Management and external
providers and are written in business language D Service Level Agreements are
between user departments and Service Level Management and are written in technical
language
Answer: B
12. Which is the correct combination of concepts and Service Management processes?
I Vulnerability A Availability Management
2 Maintainability B Capacity Management
3 Resource C Problem Management
4 Impact D IT Service Continuity Planning
A 1-D,2-A,3-B,4-C
B 1-B,2-A,3-C,4-D
C I-C,2-D,3-B,4-A
D I-D,2-C,3-A,4-B
Answer: A
13. Problem Management includes several core activities. Which one of the following
most accurately summarises these?
A Problem control, error control, management reporting
B Identification, control, status accounting, verification
C Incident control, seventy analysis, support allocation, reporting
D Identification, severity analysis, support allocation, investigation
Answer: A
14. The Service Desk is unable to deal with a customer’s enquiry. What action should
they take?
A Log the details and inform the customer of the incident number. Tell them someone
will contact them within an agreed time with an update. Retain ownership of the incident
but refer to appropriate second line support group. Monitor progress and keep customer
informed
B Tell them to ring back if it happens again
C Log the details and inform the customer of the incident number. Suggest they ring
back if they have not heard within 48 hrs
D Suggest the customer contacts a third party
Answer: A
15. When writing an IT Service Continuity Plan it is essential to prepare for a return to
normal working. Which of these is it essential to include in the section of the plan that
deals with the return to normal working?
A Removal of data from standby equipment
B list of contacts for the emergency suppliers
C Bonus payments for staff involved in the disaster
D Creation of an updated version of the IT Service Continuity Plan
Answer: A
16. Which of the following best describes why an SLA should contain definitions of
terms?
A To ensure that anywhere there is a measurement required within the SLA then it is
realistically measurable
B To ensure that both the customer and IT can unambiguously understand the terms in
SLA
C To make Sure that all clauses in the SLA make sense
D To ensure that the customer’s understanding of a particular term is the one meant in
the SLA
Answer: B
17. Which of the following would NOT normally be discussed in a typical service review
with a customer?
A Authorisation for changes to the service
B Service performance trends
C Corrective actions to be taken
D Customer satisfaction with the service
Answer: A
18. Which of the following will NOT be provided by a good Service Desk?
A Reduced requirement for IT knowledge throughout the user community
B Effective correction of the root cause of incidents
C Early warning of potential business IT operational failures
D Keeping customer’s informed
Answer: B
19. Which of the following IT Service Continuity measures is likely to be the most
appropriate for 24x7 business critical system running on a mainframe?
A Cold standby facility to be located in the car park
B Reciprocal arrangement with a local company
C Hot standby at a site some distance away
D Dormant contract with a mainframe supplier
Answer: C
20. Impact assessment is NOT normally part of which of the following processes?
A Problem Management
B IT Service Continuity Planning
C Incident Management
D Service Level Management
Answer: D
21. An overhead would normally be regarded as which of the following?
A An indirect cost
B A discounted charge
C A direct cost
D The market price
Answer: A
22. Consider these statements:
1 Service Capacity Management should ensure that the type, pattern and typical
resource requirements of all services is understood
2 Undertaking Service Capacity Management is sufficient to ensure that the
Performance difficulties never arise -
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A Neither
B Both
C OnIy 2
D Only l
Answer: D
23. A properly implemented and tested IT Service Continuity Plan can help business
continuity by:
A Planning the implementation of new services at times that don’t impact the business
B Enabling a speedy recovery of service after a disaster
C Reviewing trends in incidents and planning to avoid repetition
D Having planned maintenance tasks that reduce the likelihood of incidents
Answer: B
24. From a well-informed User’s perspective, which of the following is a likely sequence
in the management of a service failure?
A Incident Management, Change Management, Release Management, Problem
Management
B Incident Management, Problem Management, Release Management, Change
Management
C Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Management, Release
Management
D Change Management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Release
Management
Answer: C
25. The Change Management function is NOT responsible for
A Scheduling a change to the network
B Ensuring that a change to an application is prioritised
C Ensuring that the impact of a change to hardware is fully assessed
D Implementing the release of a software change
Answer: D
26. Which of the following need NOT be recorded as part of a Change Record?
A The scheduled implementation date
B Some details of the back-out plan
C Any CAB recommendations
D The names of the CAB members
Answer: D
27. Which of these two statements is true all cases? :
1 Details of a CI must be entered into the CMDB after it is added to the live
environment
2 A Cl consists of a number of component CIs
A Both1&2
B Neither 1or 2
C Only l
D Only 2
Answer: B
28. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management
process?
A Distributing software
B The physical aspects of software control
C Helping to determine the software release policy
D Ensuring that CMDB entries concerning software CIs are verified
Answer: D
29. Which is the correct sequence of events for describing an incident lifecycle after the
incident has occurred?
A Detection, Repair, Recovery, Restoration, Diagnosis
B Detection, Recovery, Repair, Restoration, Diagnosis
C Detection, Diagnosis, Recovery, Repair, Restoration
D Detection, Diagnosis, Repair, Recovery, Restoration
Answer: D
30. Which of the following statements best describes a ‘problem’?
A An incident which has been diagnosed and for which a resolution exists
B An incident that has passed its service level for fixing
C An incident that has occurred more than once
D The unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents
Answer: D
31. By introducing budgeting and accounting for IT services, which of the following will
be a DIRECT benefit?
A Better value for money
B Clearer charging policies
C Improved financial forecasting
D Higher quality support
Answer: C
32. Which of the following statements is true?
A Physical copies of all CIs are stored in the DSL
B The DSL contains source code only
C Release Management is responsible for managing the organisation’s rights and
obligations regarding software
D A change may only be developed from non—definitive version of software in the case
of an urgent release
Answer: C
33. In which of the following circumstances is requesting an urgent change justified?
A Only one small component requires changing and it is unlikely to affect any other
components
B The CAB meeting has been cancelled because most of the members are unavailable
at the time previously agreed
C The supplier has advised that previous versions will not be supported very much
longer
D The change is needed to correct an error on a business critical system
Answer: D
34. The prime responsibility of Availability Management is;
A To understand the behaviour of CIs
B To deliver a level of availability that enables customers to satisfy their business
objectives
C To negotiate and manage support contracts for hardware and software
D To manage security and serviceability of all IT services
Answer: B
35. Which of the following is NOT a valid charging policy?
A Cost recovery
B Activity base costing
C ‘Cost plus’ pricing
D Market rate
Answer: B
36. Which of the following are likely members of the Change Advisory Board?
A Problem Manager
B Change Manager
C All of them
D Customer representatives
Answer: C
37. Which of these is NOT a purpose for which Service Capacity Management
information can be used?
A DSL control
B Systems throughput calculation
C Network performance analysis
D Demand Management
Answer: A
38. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a hardware Cl?
A Number of items
B What it costs
C A supplier’s part number
D A manufacturer’s serial number
Answer: A
39. Which of the following list will NOT have a direct impact upon IT capacity?
A An increase in network bandwidth available
B A reduction in transactions processed
C A reduction in the number of tiles to be stored
D An increase in the cost per transaction
Answer: D
40. Which of the following is most involved with the: Incident — Problem — Known Error
— Change lifecycle?
A Service Support
B Service Management
C Service Delivery
D Customers Services
Answer: A
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No.3
1. A customer-based SLA structure includes:
A An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use
B An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use
C SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language
D An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use that
service
Answer: A
2. Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of implementing a
formal Incident Management process?
A Improved user satisfaction
B Incident volume reduction
C Elimination of lost incidents
D Less disruption to both IT support staff and users
Answer: B
3. An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external suppliers
selling comparable services. Which one of the following is the best description of this
approach?
A Market rate
B The going rate that is agreed with Customers
C Cost-pIus
D Profitable
Answer: A
4. Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?
A. Verification
B. Security
C. Reliability
D. Maintainability
Answer: A
5. The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:
A Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending
a lot of money
B Be as high level as possible
C Match the organisation’s requirement for information to be held
D Vary according to cost
Answer: A
6. To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of
the Service Desk servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the
request for additional capacity?
A Service Level Manager
B Change Manager
C Capacity Manager
D Financial Manager
Answer: B
7. Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:
A Service Level Management
B IT Service Financial & Continuity Management.
C Change & Capacity Management
D Change & Release Management
Answer: D
8. Possible problems with Change Management include:
A Lack of ownership of impacted services
B Increased visibility and communication of changes
C Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
D The ability to absorb a larger volume of change
Answer: A
9. Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?
I Options
2 Management summary
3 Business workload forecasts
4 Backout plans
A 2, 3 and 4
B All of them
C 2 and 3only
D I, 2 and 3
Answer: D
10. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management
stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
A Develop Procedures and Initial Testing
B Education and Awareness
C Review, Audit and Assurance
D Ongoing Training and Testing
Answer: A
11. Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?
A 4 to 24 hours
B More than 72 hours
C 24 to 72 hours
D 4 to 8hours
Answer: C
12. Which of thy following are likely members of the Change Advisory Board?
I Problem Manager
2 Customer representatives
3 Change Manager
4 Senior IT technical managers
A All of them
B 2 and 3 only
C I,2 & 4
D I,3 & 4
Answer: A
13. Consider the following activities:
I The analysis of raw data
2 The identification of trends
3 The definition of Service Management processes
4 The implementation of preventive measures
Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management
software tool?
A I, 2 & 4
B 2 & 3
C All of them
D None of them
Answer: A
14. The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organisation
resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:
A Root Cause Analysis
B Service Outage Analysis
C Business Impact Analysis
D Component Failure Impact Analysis
Answer: C
15. In Availability Management, what is SOA?
A System Optimisation Approach
B Systematic Operational Adjustment
C Serviceability of Applications
D Service Outage Analysis
Answer: D
16. Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?
A The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components operable
B The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation
C The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available
D The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the IT
infrastructure
Answer: D
17. Which one of the following statements is TRUE’?
A Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity
B Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax
C Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value
D Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
Answer: A
18. Which one of the following is NOT a major Cl type?
A Documentation
B Software
C Purchase order
D Accommodation
Answer: C
19. Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?
A DSL
B AMDB
C CMDB
D CDB
Answer: C
20. A remote site has recently had its Local Area Network upgraded. The users are now
complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with the
network capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
A Network Management
B The Service Desk
C Capacity Management
D Problem Management
Answer: B
21. The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function:
I Tool selection
2 Tool specification
3 Process design
4 Functional requirements analysis
In which order should the above activities be taken?
A 4—2—1—3
B 4—3—2—1
C 2—1—4—3
D 2—1—3—4
Answer: B
22. The process to implement SLAs comprises the following activities in sequence:
A Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs,
negotiate, agree SLAs
B Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services,
agree SLAs
C Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate,
agree SLAs
D Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs,
negotiate service levels, agree SLAs
Answer: D
23. Which of the following statements is true?
A An urgent release is always a delta release
B A full release may contain package and delta releases
C A full release may contain several delta releases
D package release may contain full and delta releases
Answer: D
24. Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
A To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum
B To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer
demands
C To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable
D To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels
Answer: D
25. Consider the following:
I Incident diagnostic scripts
2 A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents
3 A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported
4 A Forward Schedule of Change
Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk?
A I & 2
B All four
C 3 & 4
D 1, 2 & 3
Answer: B
26. The Service Desk can act as the focal point for :
I Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users
2 Recording Change Requests from users
3 Handling complaints and queries
A l Only
B 2 Only
C l & 3
D I, 2 & 3
Answer: C
27. Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk structure?
A Remedial Service Desk
B Virtual Service Desk
C Local Service Desk
D Central Service Desk
Answer: A
28. The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:
A Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals
B A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be understood
by everyone
C Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.
D Legally worded as they must be contractually binding
Answer: C
29. Consider the following list:
I Modeling
2 Risk Analysis
3 Application Sizing
4 DSL maintenance
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity
Management?
A I&2
B 3&4
C 2&4
D 1&3
Answer: D
30. At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
A When it is urgent
B When it is a Major Incident
C If the person reporting the incident is very senior
D Never
Answer: D
31. Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident
Management process in place?
A Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no
reliable information available
B No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to
proactive Problem Management
C No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems
D Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident
Management information
32. For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?
A Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC being
raised
B Devising the backout plan for a significant Change
C Chairing the CAB
D Ensuring a Release has reached the target Cis
Answer: C
33. Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the
information to be held in a CMDB?
A You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of Cls
B You shouldn’t collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control
C You shouldn’t worry too much about Change Control, the main objective is to get the
database loaded
D You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff
Answer: B
34. There are strong links between Service Level Management and
I Incident Management
2 Availability Management
3 Configuration Management
4 IT Service Continuity Management
5 Change Management
A I, 3 and 5
B 2 and 4
C 2, 3 and 5
D All of them
Answer: D
35. Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and
Problems?
I One Incident to one Problem
2 One Incident to many Problems
3 Many Incidents to one Problem
A I & 2 only
B 2 & 3 only
C I & 3 only
D All of them
Answer: C
36. Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by
Problem Management to the Service Desk?
A The number of Problems raised
B The number of Known Errors identified
C The number of Problems correctly categorised
D The number of RFCs raised
Answer: B
37. Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
A To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements
B To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers their
minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not
exceed these targets.
C To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously
improve on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability.
D To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost
Answer: A
38. Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
A Customer Service Level Requirements are established
B Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user’s calls
C Changes taking place are properly coordinated
D All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date.
Answer: B
39. The scope of a Release can best be defined by:
A The RFCs that it satisfies
B The number of updates to the OHS
C Service Level metrics
D The DSL configuration
Answer: A
40. An ‘unabsorbed’ cost is best described as:
A A capital cost
B A type of charging policy
C An uplift to allocated costs
D A revenue stream
Answer: C
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No. 4
1. Which of the following is a Service Desk activity?
A. To function as the first point of customer contact
B. To investigate the cause of disruptions for the customer
C. To trace the cause of incidents
Answer: A
2. What is the role of 1TIL within IT Service Management?
A. To provide an approach based on the best examples taken from practice
B. To serve as the international standard for IT Service Management
C. To serve as the standard model for IT service provision
D. To serve as a theoretical framework for process design
Answer: A
3. The network managers have excessive workloads and have no time to proactively
manage the network. One of the contributing factors to these large workloads is the
frequency that users contact these managers directly. Which 1TIL process would
improve this situation?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Incident Management
D. Problem Management
Answer: C
4. Which task is a Problem Management responsibility?
A. To co-ordinate all modifications to the IT infrastructure
B. To record incidents for later study
C. To approve all modifications made to the Known Error database
D. To identify user needs and modify the IT infrastructure based on such needs
Answer: C
5. The data in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) can only be modified
after permission is granted to modify the infrastructure. Which process grants such
permission?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Incident Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A
6. Which concept is part of Change Management?
A. Post implementation Review
B. Emergency Release
C. Service Request
D. Work-around
Answer: A
7. A new-networked computer is installed to replace an existing PC. The old PC is
installed as a print server for the local area network. Which process is responsible for
registering this modification in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management
Answer: B
8. Because of its increased dependency on information systems, a national realty firm
decides that there must be assurances for the provision of IT services following an
interruption to the service. Which process should be implemented to provide this
assurance?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Service Management
Answer: B
9. Data provided for the financial administration of XYZ must only be accessible to
authorized users. Security Management takes steps to ensure this.
By taking these steps, which aspect of data can be ensured?
A. Availability
B. Integrity
C. Stability
D. Confidentiality
Answer: D
10. A computer operator notices the unused storage capacity of her/his disk will soon be
used. To which ITIL process must this situation be reported?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Change Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: D
11. Which activity is a Release Management responsibility?
A. To check whether there is any illegal software on computers within the organization
B. To store the original versions of all authorized software within the organization
C. To register where each software version is available
Answer: B
12. For which purpose does Service Level Management use data from the Service
Desk’s incident registration?
A. To draw up Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B. To report on the number and nature of incidents that occurred during a specific period
C. To determine the availability of an IT service using the number of resolved incidents
D. To analyze, together with other data, in order to determine if the agreed service level
is being provided
Answer: D
13. The Service Desk has handled 2317 calls this month.
What would these calls include?
A. Modifications to Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B. Notices regarding modified Configuration Items (CIs)
C. Requests to the IT organization for user support
Answer: C
14. A steel company is merging with a competitor. The IT departments, along with the IT
infrastructures of both companies will be combined.
Which process is responsible for determining the required disk and memory space
required for applications running in the combined if infrastructure?
A. Application Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Computer Operations Management
D. Release Management
Answer: B
15. Which concept is not part of Financial Management for IT Services?
A. Budgeting
B. Charging
C. Procuring
D. Pricing
Answer: C
16. Service Level Requirements are used in the Service Level Management process.
What do these Service Level Requirements represent?
A. The customer’s expectations and needs regarding the service
B. What the IT organization expects of the customer
C. The conditions required for the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. A paragraph of the SLA with additional specifications required to execute the SLA
Answer: A
17. Which of the following is one of the responsibilities of Availability Management?
A. To enter into contracts with suppliers
B. To monitor the availability of a charge through system
C. To verify the reliability and the service level of the Configuration Items (CIs)
purchased from and maintained by third parties
D. To plan and manage the reliability and availability of IT Service
Answer: C
18. A user complains to the Service Desk that an error continually occurs when using a
specific application. This causes the connection with the network to be broken.
Which 1TIL process is responsible for tracing the cause?
A. Availability Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management
Answer: C
19. A serious incident has occurred. The assigned solution team is unable to resolve this
incident within the agreed time.
The Incident Manager is called in.
Which form of escalation describes the above sequence of events?
A. Formal escalation
B. Functional escalation
C. Hierarchical escalation
D. Operational escalation
Answer: C
20. Which Of the following best describes a problem
A. One or more Known Errors
B. A known cause of one or more disruptions
C. The unknown cause of one or more incidents
D. A Known Error with one or more incidents
Answer: C
21. Which concept is part of IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Application Sizing
B. Vulnerability
C. Maintainability
D. Resilience
Answer: B
22. How does if Service Management contribute to the quality of IT service provision?
A. By recording agreements between internal and external customers and suppliers in
formal documents
B. By defining generally accepted norms for service levels
C. By promoting a customer focus among all the employees of the IT organization
D. By planning, implementing and managing a coherent set of processes for providing IT
services
Answer: D
23. Performance Management and Resource Management are parts of which process?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B
24. An organization has set up an Incident Management Process. In doing so, several
groups were created to resolve specific incidents.
These groups include:
- PC Solution Team;
- Network Solution Team;
- Service Desk;
- Specialists’ Group to support the other teams.
Within an IT organization, support groups are generally categorized by levels. Select the
answer that correctly categorizes the support groups mentioned above.
A. First-line Service Desk / First-line Both Solution Teams / Second-line Specialists
B. First-line Service Desk / Second-line PC Solution Team / Third-line Network Solution
Team / Fourth-line Specialists
C. First-line Service Desk / Second-line Both Solutions Teams / Third-line Specialists
Answer: C
25. The management of ABC Inc. has insisted that each request for a new workstation
installation be handled with optimum efficiency and effectiveness.
Which 1TIL process is designed to achieve this desired outcome?
A. Change Management
B. Customer Liaison
C. Problem Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A
26. Which of the following is a Configuration Item (CI)?
A. A call
B. Documentation
C. An incident
D. A process
Answer: B
27. How does Problem Management support the Service Desk activities?
A. It resolves serious incidents for the Service Desk.
B. It studies all incidents resolved by the Service Desk.
C. It relieves the Service Desk by communicating the resolution directly to the user.
D. It makes information on a Known Error available to the Service Desk.
Answer: D
28. Which of the following is a Configuration Baseline?
A. The standard configuration for the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. A description of a standardized Configuration Item (CI)
C. A set of Cis that is delivered once
D. A recorded snapshot of a product or service, to provide a basis for a configuration
audit and regression
Answer: D
29. Which of the following is the role of the Definitive Software Library (DSL) in the
Release Management process?
A. A physical storage area for the original versions of all authorized software in use
B. A reference manual that includes all software documentation
C. A registration tool for all software items
D. A type of Configuration Management Database (CMDB) for software
Answer: A
30. Your Network Department has made an agreement with an external organization in
order to fulfill an agreement with its internal customer.
Where would the agreement with the external organization be specified?
A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
B. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C. Service Level Requirement (SLR)
D. Underpinning Contract (UC)
Answer: D
31. How does Availability Management work with Security Management?
A. By making agreements on the availability of the Security Database
B. By making agreements on the security of the Availability Database
C. By establishing the security boundaries based on the availability requirements
D. By implementing the measures specified by Security Management for securing the
data
Answer: D
32. Which QUESTION is being answered when an organization specifies its vision and
business objectives?
A. How do we get where we want to be?
B. How do we know we have arrived?
C. Where do we want to be?
D. Where are we now?
Answer: C
33. Which task is the responsibility of Configuration Management?
A. Convening the Configuration Advisory Board
B. Physically managing software items
C. Installing equipment at the workplace
D. Recording the relations between Configuration Items (Cis)
Answer: D
34. After the requisite search, the common cause of a series of incidents is found. This
results in a Known Error. In the sequence of things, what should happen after the Known
Error has been declared?
A. All incidents must be resolved as quickly as possible.
B. The error must be resolved using a change.
C. The error must be included in the Configuration Management Database (CMI)B).
D. The problem must be identified.
Answer: B
35. What is the primary task of Error Control?
A. To figure out the details for work-arounds
B. To resolve Known Errors through the Change Management process
C. To recognize and register Known Errors
D. To register and manage Known Errors
Answer: B
36. Which 1TIL process is associated with a Post Implementation Review?
A. Application Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management
Answer: C
37. When processing a Request for Change (RFC), the Change Manager initiates a
number of activities.
Which action is required if this involves a complex change?
A. The Change Manager reports the change to Problem Management.
B. The Change Manager reports the change to Incident Management.
C. The Change Manager presents the change to the Change Advisory Board.
D. The Change Manager presents the change to the IT Manager.
Answer: C
38. What is the difference between Asset Management and Configuration Management?
A. Asset Management only deals with what you own; Configuration Management deals
with everything in your infrastructure.
B. Asset Management is a superset of Configuration Management, as it includes non-if
assets such as chairs and tables.
C. Asset Management deals with the financial aspects of Configuration Items;
Configuration Management only deals with the technical details of the infrastructure.
D. Configuration Management goes much further than Asset Management, because it
also specifies the relations between the assets.
Answer: D
39. Which 1TIL process uses Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C.IT Service Continuity Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A
40. A company sets up an Intranet for its graphic design workstations. The bandwidth
must be increased because of the high volume of illustrations sent over the network.
Which 1TIL process is responsible for approving the implementation of increased
bandwidth?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Availability Management
D. Problem Management
Answer: B
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No. 5
1. How can Service Level Management use data from the incident register at the
Service Desk? Service Level Management uses this data ;
A. To draw up the Service Level Agreement (SLA).
B. To draw up reports about the number and nature of incidents in a certain period.
C. To determine the availability of an IT Service, on the basis of the number of incidents
resolved.
D. Together with other data to work out whether the service level agreed upon has been
achieved.
Answer: D
2. Which statement describes a Service Desk activity?
A. To function as the first point of customer contact.
B. To investigate the cause of disruptions for the customer.
C. To trace the cause of incidents.
Answer: A
3. Consider the following statements:
I. An SLA is a contract drawn up by the IT department which states what the customer
may and may not do with his computer.
2. A Service Catalogue describes concisely and specifically the IT services that the IT
department can offer a customer.
Which of these statements is correct?
A. Only the first
B. Only the second
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: B
4. What is the correct description of ‘impact’?
A. The degree to which the provision of services is disrupted and the speed with which
this must be remedied
B. The degree to which the user indicates how quickly the incident must be resolved.
C. The effect that an incident has on the components of the IT infrastructure, including
the consequences for the service that has been agreed upon.
D. The effect that an incident has on the activities of the users and the speed with which
the incidents must be resolved.
Answer: C
5. Which task is a Problem Management responsibility?
A. To co-ordinate all modifications to the IT infrastructure.
B. To record incidents for later study.
C. To approve all modifications made to the Known Error database.
D. To identify user needs and modify the IT infrastructure based on such needs.
Answer: C
6. The manufacturer claims that the new line of central mainframes can reach an MTBF
of 5000 hours What does this mean?
A. That the mainframes have an average life of 5000 hours
B. That the mainframes operate continuously for an average of 5000 hours
C. That the mainframes will fail every 5000 hours
D. That the mainframe can operate continuously for a maximum of 5000 hours.
Answer: B
7. Network managers are overloaded with work. They hardly get a chance to manage
the network. One of the reasons for this is that users approach them directly to answer
all kinds of questions.
Which ITIL process or function needs to be set up to improve this situation?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Error Control
D. Service Desk
E. Incident Management
F. Problem Management
Answer: D
8. Data in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) may be updated only if an
order instruction has been given for this:
Which process gives this order?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Service Desk
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A
9. A change has taken place in the IT infrastructure
How is Change Management related to the Configuration Management Database
(CMDB)? Change Management;
A. Checks whether the change has been made in the CMDB.
B. Carries out investigations into the degree of consistency in the CMDB.
C. Provides Configuration Management with the data required to implement the change
in the CMDB.
D. Implements the change in the CMDB and informs Configuration Management about
it.
Answer: C
10. Consider the following statements:
1. A change in the IT infrastructure is always the result of a change of a Service Level
2. A Service Level Agreement (SLA) exhibits many similarities to a procedure for
drawing up a Request for Change (RFC). Are these statements correct?
A. Only the first
B. Only the second
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: D
11. The performance of the network in a large computer centre is monitored 24 hours a
day. This produces data for which processes?
A. Availability Management, Capacity Management and Change Management
B. Availability Management, Capacity Management and Problem Management
C. Change Management, Financial Management and Service Level Management
D. Financial Management, Service Desk and Problem Management
Answer: B
12. The sequence of dealing with problems must be based on...
A. The category to which the problem belongs.
B. The impact of the problem.
C. The priority of the problem.
D. The urgency of the problem.
Answer: C
13. A new networked computer is installed to replace an existing PC. The old PC is
installed as a print server for the local area network. Which process is responsible for
registering this modification in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management
Answer: B
14. A computer operator establishes that a memory disk is in danger of becoming
completely full. He reports this to...
A. Capacity Management.
B. Change Management.
C. Planning & Control for IT Services
D. Service Level Management.
Answer: A
15. Because of its increased dependency on information systems, a large financial
institution decides that there must be plans for the provision of IT services following a
major interruption to the service. Which process, therefore, should be implemented?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Service Management
Answer: B
16. A printer in a department of an insurance office has broken down. Hardware Support
wants to approach the supplier of the printer to remedy the defect. Hardware Support
can obtain data from Configuration Management about which of the following:
1. The location of the printer
2. The type of maintenance contract
3. The number of disruptions the printer has experienced in the last six months
Which of the above is correct:
A. Onlyland2
B. Onlyland3
C. Only2and3
D. l,2,and3
Answer: D
17. What information does the Service Desk provide to the IT management of an
organisation?
A. All deviations from the specified service levels
B. The growth of the IT infrastructure
C. The time spent on investigation and diagnosis for each department
D. The number of incidents per category
Answer: D
18. Which is the correct combination of concepts and ITIL processes?
1. CMDB
2. DSL
3. MTBF
4. SLA
a. Availability Management
b. Configuration Management
c. Service Level Management
d. Release Management
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
B. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a,4-c
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
D. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
Answer: B
19. Which of these tasks is a task of Problem Management?
A. Co-ordination of all changes to the IT infrastructure.
B. Classification of Requests for Change (RFCs).
C. Approval of all changes / modifications made to the Known-Error database.
D. Recognising user’s requirements and subsequently implementing changes to the IT
infrastructure.
Answer: C
20. Which of the following activities does the Service Desk undertake?
A. Error Control, Recording Incidents, Status Accounting
B. Impact determination, Problem Management, Verification
C. Incident Management, Providing Management Information, Recording CIs
D. Incident Management, Providing Management Information, Recording Incidents
Answer: D
21. Key features of all IT services are recorded in.
A. The Service Catalogue.
B. The Service Level Management Database.
C. Service Level Requirements.
D. Service Level Agreements.
Answer: A
22. Which activity is a Release Management responsibility?
A. To check whether any illegal software on computers within the organisation.
B. To store the original versions of all authorised software within the organisation.
C. To register where each software version is available.
Answer: B
23. Give one reason why charging for IT services is an important element of Financial
Management?
A. The availability of an IT service can be measured.
B. The resources needed for an application can be determined.
C. The use of IT services can be influenced.
D. Scenarios for capacity planning can be investigated.
Answer: C
24. Which of the concepts below belongs to IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Serviceability
B. Maintainability
C. Resilience
D. Vulnerability
Answer: D
25. The Service Desk has handled 2317 calls this month. What are the majority of these
calls likely to include?
A. Modifications to Service Level Agreements (SLAs).
B. Notices regarding modified Configuration Items (CIs).
C. Requests to the IT organisation for user support.
Answer: C
26. For which ITIL process is the determination of priorities based on impact and
urgency an essential activity?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A
27. A user calls the Service Desk with a complaint that, when using a particular
application, an error always occurs that breaks his connection to the network. Which
process has overall responsibility for tracing the underlying cause?
A. Service Desk
B. Network Management
C. Problem Management
D. System Management
E. Incident Management
Answer: C
28. Which of the examples below is NOT an example of a configuration item?
A. A user manual
B. A company’s organisation chart
C. A systems update procedure
D. A unique identification code
Answer: D
29. Service Level Requirements are used in the Service Level Management process.
Which statement best describes what these Service Level Requirements represent?
A. The amount of defined IT service that the customer requires.
B. What the IT organisation expects of the customer.
C. The conditions required for the Service Level Agreement (SLA).
D. A paragraph of the SLA with additional specifications required to execute the SEA.
Answer: A
30. A steel company merges with a competitor. The IT departments, along with the IT
infrastructures of both companies will be combined. Which process is responsible for
determining the required disk and memory space required for applications running in the
combined IT infrastructure?
A. Application Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Computer Operations Management
D. Release Management
Answer: B
31. A new disk unit has to be installed to solve a problem with making back-ups on the
network, and the procedures for making back-ups have to be changed. Through which
process does formal approval have to be given for carrying out the changes?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Network Management
D. Problem Management
Answer: A
32. Given the following formula:
Availability percentage = ((iii)/iii)* 100
III What should be filled in for i, ii and iii?
A. I Reliability II Duration of fault Ill Agreed time
B. I Reliability II Duration of fault III Resilience
C. I Maintainability II Resilience III Resilience
D. I Maintainability II Resilience III Maintainability
E. I Agreed time II Duration of fault III Agreed time
Answer: E
33. Consider the following activities:
1. Change categorisation
2. Change implementation
3. Change review
4. Change scheduling
5. Filtering requests for change
In which sequence should these activities be carried out in order to implement a change
in the IT infrastructure in a controlled fashion?
A. 1-4-5-2-3
B. 1 -5-4-3-2
C. 4-1-5-3-2
D. 5-1-4-2-3
E. 5-1-2-4-3
Answer: D
34. Which function is not part of Financial Management for IT services?
A. Budgeting
B. Charging
C. Procurement
D. Pricing
Answer: C
35. It is important for the operation of a given application that the version of the software
installed on each of the computers on the network is the same.
Which process is responsible for this?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Network Management
D. Release Management
Answer: D
36. Consider the following statements.
1. To determine the impact of change it is necessary to understand the structure of the
IT services and the way they support the business processes concerned.
2. The relationships between the various components of the infrastructure play an
important role in determining the impact of a change.
Are these statements correct?
A. Only the first
B. Only the second
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: C
37. You work at the Service Desk of an organisation. A user calls up to say that his
terminal does not function. This is a ;
A. Incident
B. Known Error
C. Problem
D. Request for Change
Answer: A
38. What is the consequence when the Configuration Item (Cl) level is too high?
A. Certain parts of the infrastructure cannot be checked and managed properly.
B. Certain problems cannot be analysed because the information available is
inadequate.
C. There is insufficient assurance that the information provided correctly reflects reality.
Answer: A
39. To carry out the planned installation of new software releases, the network server
needs expanding.
Which process is responsible for investigating the required disk space of the network
server?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Network Management
D. Release Management
Answer: A
40. An organisation starts to use Intranet and e-mail. As many ‘images’ are sent back
and forth over the network, its capacity needs expanding.
Which process is suitable for approving this capacity expansion?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Network Management
D. Problem Management
Answer: B
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No.6
1. Consider the following statements; which is NOT true?
A. Change Management is responsible for providing a detailed specification of the effect
on CIs of an authorised change.
B. Change Management keeps a record of all changes by logging, tracking and
reviewing them.
C. Change Management receives, records and helps allocate priorities to all RFCs.
D. Change Management will ensure that adequate back-out plans are prepared before
changes are implemented.
Answer: A
2. A user reports to the Service Desk a loss of the network connection that occurs
repeatedly when using a specific application. Which ITIL process is responsible for
tracing the cause?
A. Availability Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management
Answer: C
3. A major change to an existing service is to be designed and built and the issue of
what Configuration Management is responsible for has been raised. For which of the
following activities does Configuration Management NOT have a responsibility?
A. Quality assurance of the software modules.
B. Controlling the completeness and correctness of all data about the software modules.
C. Naming and recording data about software modules.
D. Registering and monitoring the status of the software modules
Answer: A
4. The Service Desk is informed that a user has forgotten her password after her
holiday. This only affects the one user. The Service Desk and the user are both aware
that solving this incident will take only a few minutes. From the information given, you
would say that...
A. The impact is high
B. The priority is high
C. The urgency is high
D. Little can be said about impact, priority or urgency
Answer: D
5. A serious incident has occurred. The assigned solution team is unable to resolve the
problem within the agreed time. The Incident Manager is called in. Which form of
escalation describes the above sequence of events?
A. Formal escalation
B. Functional escalation
C. Hierarchical escalation
D. Operational escalation
Answer: C
6. The successful diagnosis of a problem results in a known error. On the basis of this
known error a request for change may be raised.
The known error record may be closed when...
A. A review of the change has led to a satisfactory result.
B. The proposal for change is lodged with Change Management.
C. The request for change is authorised by the Change Advisory Board.
D. Incidents related to the known error don’t occur any more.
Answer: A
7. If a company decides to charge its internal customers for the IT services they use in
order to improve general cost awareness, which function will make sure that the charges
and the services to which they relate are formally agreed and documented?
A. Service Level Management.
B. Financial Management for IT Services.
C. Local Management.
D. Customer Management.
Answer: A
8. Which statement best describes a Problem?
A. One or more Known Errors.
B. A known cause of one or more disruptions.
C. An unknown cause of one or more incidents.
D. A Known Error with one or more incidents.
Answer: C
9. Which best describes the contents of the Definitive Software Library?
A. All the software likely to be needed by in-house software developers and maintainers.
B. Copies of all live software used on the infrastructure.
C. Authorised versions of all software used on the infrastructure.
D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing.
Answer: C
10. Performance Management and Resource Management are parts of which process?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B
11. Which one of the following is NOT a task of Capacity Management?
A. Monitoring overall performance of the IT infrastructure.
B. Sizing and or modeling of new applications.
C. Procuring of new / upgraded hardware.
D. Assessing the possible benefits of new technology to the organisation.
Answer: C
12. A new service is to go live tomorrow. Which of the following should be available at
the Service Desk?
1. The Service Level Manager to take the heat out of any angry confrontations very
quickly.
2. Support scripts.
3. The appropriate change schedule.
4. Network specialists.
A. land4.
B. 2 & 3.
C. 1,2 & 3.
D. All of them.
Answer: B
13. Risk Management is an essential part of one of the following pairs of functions,
which pair?
A. Problem Management & Capacity Management.
B. Availability Management & Service Level Management.
C. IT Service Continuity Management & Financial Management for IT Services.
D. IT Service Continuity Management & Availability Management.
Answer: D
14. ‘Maintainability’ is best described as:
A. The contractual conditions under which infrastructure components are maintained.
B. The ability of a Cl to be retained in or restored to a condition in which it can perform
its required functions.
C. An umbrella term used to described serviceability, resilience and reliability.
D. The ability of a set of configuration items to maintain a service when one or more of
the CIs have failed.
Answer: B
15. Which of the following are prime responsibilities of Availability Management?
1. To plan for and monitor the availability of IT services agreed in SLA’s.
2. To negotiate the availability levels in SLA’s.
3. To record details of unavailability events.
4. To initiate changes to the infrastructure to prevent failures of availability.
A. l and 2.
B. 3 and 4.
C. All of them.
D. l & 4.
Answer: D
16. The steps in the Incident Management process might best be described as:
A. Incident recording and alerting, initial support and classification, investigation and
diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure.
B. Incident recording, initial codification and allocation, maintaining customer contact,
service recovery.
C. First line incident support, day to day contact with users, business system support,
management reporting on IT services quality.
Answer: A
17. In which cases must a review take place after implementation of a change?
A. If another incident of the same type occurs again.
B. Always.
C. At the request of the person who submitted the change request.
D. Randomly.
Answer: B
18. Consider the following statements.
1 .To be able to define Service Desk impact codes, it is necessary to have information
about the structure of the IT services and how they provide support for the business
processes.
2.The criteria for determining the impact codes are established in consultation with the
organisation.
3.The relationships between the various components in the infrastructure
play an important role in determining the impact.
Are these statements correct?
A. only the first and second
B. only the first and third
C. only the second and third
D. all three
Answer: D
19. A Service Desk is suddenly inundated with phone calls from customers who cannot
work any more. After questioning callers it soon becomes clear that an important system
on a central UNIX server has failed.
For which of the following actions is the Service Desk NOT responsible?
A. The categorisation of incoming calls.
B. Identifying the cause of the failure.
C. The prioritisation of incoming calls.
D. The escalation of the incidents.
Answer: B
20. The management of ABC Ltd. has insisted that each request for a new workstation
installation be handled with optimum efficiency and effectiveness.
Which ITIL process is designed to achieve this desired outcome?
A. Change Management
B. Customer Liaison
C. Problem Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A
21. What is the most important advantage an organisation should gain from establishing
a Definitive Software Library?
A. Only tested and certified software versions will be used in the organisation
B. The owner of the Definitive Software Library has the option to decide which software
is used in an organisation
C. The end users can choose from a wide range of controlled and certified software
D. A greater number of software versions can be offered to the end users.
Answer: A
22. Which of the following best describes a Configuration Baseline?
A. The standard configuration for the Configuration Management Database (CMDB).
B. A description of a standardised Configuration Item (Cl).
C. A set of Configuration Items (CIs) that is delivered once.
D. A recorded snapshot of a product or service, to provide a basis for a configuration
auditor regression.
Answer: D
23. Which statement defines the role of the Definitive Software Library (DSL) in the
Release Management process?
A. A physical storage area for the original versions of all authorised software in use.
B. A reference manual that includes all software documentation.
C. A registration tool for all software items.
D. A type of Configuration Management Database (CMDB) for software.
Answer: A
24. Your Network Department has made an agreement with an external organisation in
order to fulfill its agreement with its internal customer.
Where would the agreement with the external organisation be specified?
A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
B. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C. Service Level Requirement (SLR)
D. Underpinning Contract (UC)
Answer: D
25. In an organisation with widely distributed Service Desk which one of the following is
most important?
A. That all staff speak the same language.
B. That all incidents recording is via the 24-hour clock.
C. That they share a common means of recording information for analysis.
D. That the Service Desk staff have access to a common pool of problem solvers.
Answer: C
26. Which task is the responsibility of Configuration Management?
A. Convening the Configuration Advisory Board.
B. Physically managing software items.
C. Installing equipment at the workplace.
D. Recording the relationships between Configuration Items (Cls).
Answer: D
27. A delivery of PC’s is received in the goods inwards department. The status of the
PC’s has to be changed from “ordered” to “in stock”. Which function is responsible for
recording this change of status?
A. Financial Management for IT Services.
B. Problem Management.
C. Configuration Management.
D. Change Management.
Answer: C
28. Security is one of the significant elements of:
A. Capacity Management.
B. Availability Management.
C. Resource Management.
Answer: B
29. Which of the following statements are true? The Change Advisory Board (CAB)
should ensure that the proposed changes are assessed for:
1. The likely impact on recovery plans.
2. The effect of not implementing the change.
3. The resources required to implement the change.
4. The likely impact on capacity and performance.
A. l,2and3.
B. All of them.
C. 2,3and4.
D. l,2and4.
Answer: B
30. What is the primary objective of error control?
A. To figure out the details for work-arounds.
B. To resolve Known Errors through the Change Management process.
C. To recognise and register Known Errors.
D. To register and manage Known Errors.
Answer: B
31. The best Mission Statement for Capacity Management is:
A. To ensure that cost justifiable IT capacity, matched to the agreed needs of the
customers, always exists.
B. To ensure that sufficient IT capacity exists to meet customer demands during the
current procurement cycle.
C. To ensure that at times of peak demands, sufficient IT capacity exists and that such
capacity is provided at minimum cost to the business.
Answer: A
32. When processing a Request for Change (RFC), the Change Manager initiates a
number of activities. Which action is required if this involves a complex change?
A. The Change Manager reports the change to Problem Management.
B. The Change Manager reports the change to Incident Management.
C. The Change Manager presents the change to the Change Advisory Board.
D. The Change Manager presents the change to the IT Manager.
Answer: C
33. Which of the listed tasks are regarded as proactive?
1. Control of Known Errors.
2. Reviewing incident and problem analysis reports to identify trends.
3. Preventing problems in one service being replicated in another.
4. Identifying the root cause of incidents.
A. l & 4.
B. l,2 & 3.
C. 2 & 3.
D. l & 3.
Answer: C
34. The percentage of business operations support requests closed without requiring
further action is an effectiveness metric of:
A. Availability Management.
B. Problem Management.
C. The Service Desk.
D. Service Level Management.
Answer: C
35. Which statement correctly describes the difference between Asset Management and
Configuration Management?
A. Asset Management only deals with what is owned; Configuration Management deals
with everything in the infrastructure.
B. Asset Management is a superset of Configuration Management because it includes
non-IT assets such as chairs and tables.
C. Asset Management deals with the financial aspects of Configuration Items (CIs);
Configuration Management only deals with the technical details of the infrastructure.
D. Configuration Management goes much further than Asset Management because it
also specifies the relationships between assets.
Answer: D
36. Which of the following describes the normal sequence of events for fault resolution
A. Problem - Incident - Change - Known Error.
B. Incident - Problem - Change - Known Error
C. Incident - Problem - Known Error - Change.
D. Problem - Incident - Known Error - Change.
Answer: C
37. Consider the following:
1. SLAs should define roles & responsibilities on both sides of the agreement.
2. SLAs should be regularly monitored and reports should be produced and circulated.
3. Underpinning contracts should be reviewed before SLAs are signed.
A. None are correct.
B. 1 & 2 are correct
C. 2 & 3 are correct.
D. All are correct.
Answer: D
38. Customers find that during acceptance tests response times do not always meet the
level specified in the Service Level Requirement. Nevertheless they decide to introduce
the new application.
Which process is responsible for the registration and processing of this shortcoming
after ‘go live’?
A. Capacity Management.
B. The application developers.
C. Problem Management.
D. Service Level Management.
Answer: C
39. Which ITIL process uses Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A
40. Which of these is NOT true? Availability levels will depend upon:
A. Reliability of components.
B. Component expenditure.
C. Resilience to failure.
D. Quality of maintenance / support.
Answer: B
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No.7
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Problem Management may be involved when a major incident occurs
B. The Service Desk monitors problems throughout their lifecycles
C. Problem Management is responsible for managing the resolution of problems
D. Problem Management is responsible for Error Control
Answer: B
2. For which of the following activities is the Service Desk NOT responsible?
A. Impact analysis
B. Root cause identification
C. Categorisation and prioritisation
D. Escalation
Answer: B
3. Which of these is NOT a Capacity Management activity?
A. Tuning
B. Demand Management
C. Application sizing
D. Maintainability
Answer: D
4. Following the release of a software upgrade to fix a known error, which area is
responsible for ensuring that the CMDB has been updated correctly?
A. Change Management
B. Problem Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Release Management
Answer: C
5. Consider the following situations:
1. An incident exceeds the downtime stipulated within a SLA
2. The business impact of an incident changes due to unforeseen circumstances
3. The number of users impacted by an incident is greater than first thought
4. A senior user in the customer’s organisation complains about the lack of progress
being made on a particular incident Which of the above could be valid reasons for the
Service Desk to invoke escalation procedures?
A. All four
B. 2,3&4
C. 1,2&3
D. l,3&4
Answer: A
6. A customer has requested a review of charges for services provided under an SLA.
Within the SLA there is provision for this. Who will review this with the customer?
A. The IT Finance Manager
B. The Configuration Manager
C. The Service Level Manager
D. The Change Manager
Answer: C
7. Which of the following is the last activity in the Problem Management process?
A. The referral of any associated RFCs to Change Management
B. Log the problem
C. Closing the Problem Record, having completed all Problem Management activities
D. Initiating a review of the problem and its impact
Answer: C
8. Which of the following justifications could be considered a valid reason for a business
not having any continuity plans for a specific IT service?
A. The IT department does not have the skills for developing continuity plans
B. The IT department has made a decision that the risk of disaster is small
C. The business does not have time to be involved in preparing continuity plans
D. A management decision has been made following a business impact assessment
Answer: D
9. Which of the following is NOT a Problem Management responsibility?
A. Ownership of an incident throughout its lifecycle
B. Investigation & Diagnosis
C. Raising Requests for Change
D. Maintenance of a known error database
Answer: A
10. Change Management ensures that scheduling decisions are based on:
1. Business urgency
2. Business impact
3. Resource requirements and availability
Which of the above are correct?
A. l&2
B. All three
C. l&3
D. 2&3
Answer: B
11. Writing-off an equal amount of an asset’s value each year, usually a fixed
percentage of cost, is known as
A. Transfer costs
B. Discounted cash flow
C. Net book value
D. Depreciating
Answer: D
12. When establishing a new SLA, or amending an existing one, which of the following
should the Service Level Manager take into account.
1. That the new, or revised, SLA reflects the targets agreed with the customer
2. That the conditions in other SLAs can continue to be met
3. The potential impact on existing IT Service Continuity plans
Of the above, which are true?
A. l&2
B. 2&3
C. 1,2&3
D. l&3
Answer: C
13. There is a network incident that affects 200 users. At the same time the Managing
Director’s printer has broken and he wants to print a report now. Which of the following
statements can be deduced from this information?
A. There is insufficient information to determine which incident has the higher priority
B. The Managing Director’s printer must be fixed because of the higher business impact
C. Both incidents have an equally high priority
D. The network incident has a higher priority than the Managing Director’s printer
because it affects a lot more people
Answer: A
14. Which of the following is NOT a concern of Resource Capacity Management?
A. Differential charging for exceptional workloads
B. Understanding new applications in order to assess their potential impact on the
infrastructure
C. Service resilience
D. Use of alternative technologies
Answer: A
15. Under an ITIL Change Management process, once a change has been built, who
should undertake further testing?
A. The Change Builder
B. The Change Manager
C. The Change Advisory Board
D. An independent tester
Answer: D
16. Consider this list:
1. Analytical
2. Simulation
3. Demand
4. Resource
Which of those listed above are techniques of IT Modeling?
A. 3&4
B. l&2
C. 2&3
D. l&4
Answer: B
17. A known error occurs when:
A. An error has occurred several times and has been passed to Problem Management
B. An error occurs that has not been diagnosed and for which a circumvention does not
yet exist
C. A problem has been diagnosed and a resolution or circumvention exists
D. The resolution of a problem has been implemented
Answer: C
18. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Maintaining the agreed level of confidentiality is a concern of Availability Management
B. Availability Management should contribute to the design and development of new
software products
C. Availability Management negotiates availability levels with customers to ensure that
their requirements are met
D. Availability Management is concerned with the performance of hardware CIs
Answer: C
19. The term Variant’ is best used to describe:
A. Unauthorised or illegal versions of software
B. An incident which has the same impact as an existing known error but a different root
cause
C. A Cl based on another, but with minor amendments applied
D. The difference between forecast and actual resource usage
Answer: C
20. Consider the following information:
1. Type
2. Unique identifier
3. Version number
4. Copy number
Which of the above details should be recorded for every Cl recorded within the CMDB?
A. 1&2
B. 1,3&4
C. All of them
D. 2&3
Answer: A
21. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the IT Service Continuity planning
team?
A. Outlining possible measures to protect an IT service
B. Deciding the business criticality of an IT service
C. Testing the plans for recovery of an IT service
D. Identifying the risks to an IT service
Answer: B
22. Which of the following abbreviations most accurately represents ‘downtime’?
A. MTR
B. CFIA
C. MTBF
D. MTBSI
Answer: A
23. Which is the correct combination of terms and Service Management processes?
1 CMDB
2 CFIA
3 DHS
4 OLA
A Availability Management
B Release Management
C Service Level Management
D Configuration Management
A. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A.4-B
B. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B,4-C
C. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C.4-D
D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B.4-A
Answer: B
24. Which of the following best describes ‘reliability’?
A. The combination of confidentiality, integrity and maintainability
B. The ability of a service to remain functional even though some components have
failed
C. The ability of a Cl to remain functional under given conditions
D. The ability of a Cl to be retained in, or restored to, an operational state
Answer: C
25. Which of the following activities is the responsibility of Change Management?
A. Reviewing changes to ensure they have worked
B. Creating a change to rectify a known error
C. Determining the release strategy for a major change
D. Implementing a software change at a remote site
Answer: A
26. Within an ITIL compliant Change Management process, who initially assesses the
category of a proposed change?
A. Change Manager
B. Change Advisory Board
C. Change Requestor
D. Change Implementer
Answer: A
27. An advantage of a gradual recovery portable approach is that:
A. Restoration of telecommunications will be simple
B. It can be established in a convenient location
C. It is the cheapest option
D. Access to the site will be available immediately
Answer: B
28. Which of the following activities is NOT part of the release process:
A. Moving software from the DSL to the development environment
B. Moving software from the DSL to the live environment
C. Moving software from the development to the test environment
D. Moving software from the live environment to the DSL
Answer: D
29. Charging business users a premium rate for using resources at peak times is known
as:
A. Peak resource charging
B. Differential charging
C. Notional charging
D. Discounting
Answer: B
30. Which of the following statements best describes the Definitive Software Library?
A. A secure software library containing all versions of software CIs in their definitive,
quality controlled, form
B. A logical library, held securely on computer, containing all versions of software CIs
C. A secure, physical library containing the latest version of every software Cl in a quality
controlled manner
D. A logical library, held securely on computer, containing the latest version of every
software Cl
Answer: A
31. Which is the correct combination of concepts and Service Management processes?
1 Risks
2 Reliability
3 Thresholds
4 Roll-outs
A Capacity Management
B Release Management
C Availability Management
D IT Service Continuity Planning
A. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
B. I-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
C. l-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
Answer: C
32. One reason for building a Cost Model is so that:
A. Charges will reflect what the market will bear
B. It can be related directly to its constituent units
C. The costs of IT can be aligned to business activities
D. It is easy for IT to calculate
Answer: C
33. In terms of IT Service Continuity Management, a ‘Reciprocal Arrangement’ means:
A. Taking the best of all other approaches
B. Having a mirrored service in another location
C. Entering into an agreement with another organisation using similar technology
D. Not having more than one other site to move to
Answer: C
34. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Release Management process?
A. To assess the impact of software changes
B. To agree the content of software releases, through liaison with Change Management
C. To design and implement effective procedures for the distribution of changes to
software across the organisation
D. To prevent software viruses entering the organization
Answer: A
35. Risk assessment is NOT a major part of which of the following processes?
A. Service Level Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Change Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A
36. Which of the following is most involved with the day-to-day provision of quality
services?
A. Customer Services
B. Applications Development
C. Service Delivery
D. Service Support
Answer: D
37. The Service Level Manager requires confirmation that the internal Service Desk can
answer Customer calls within 10 seconds. In which document might the Service Desk’s
agreement to this requirement be recorded?
A. Internal Specification Sheet
B. Operational Level Agreement
C. Service Level Agreement
D. An underpinning third party contract
Answer: B
38. Which of the following is NOT part of the role of the Service Desk?
A. Providing support to the user community
B. Resolving the root causes of incidents
C. Acting as day-to-day interface between IT services and users
D. Monitoring the progress of incidents
Answer: B
39. Which of the following would NOT normally be regarded as one of the major input
cost elements of an IT service?
A. Accommodation
B. Transfer
C. Software
D. Cost Model
Answer: D
40. Items of information stored in the CMDB relating to a specific Cl are known as:
A. Components
B. Features
C. Attributes
D. Characteristics
Answer: C
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No.8
1. Which of the following lists best describes the key attributes needed by Service Desk
Staff?
A. Good interpersonal skills; tenacious; technically astute; firm
B. Business aware; articulate; methodical; tolerant; good interpersonal skills
C. Logical; methodical; tenacious; forthright; analytical
D. Well presented; technical specialist; numerate; good interpersonal skills
ANSWER: B
2. Which of the ITIL processes is responsible for ensuring the organisation is aware of
new and changing technology?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. Configuration Management
ANSWER: A
3. Which incidents should be logged by the Service Desk?
A. Only incidents not resolved at logging
B. Only incidents from bona fide customers
C. All incidents except simple enquiries
D. All incidents
ANSWER: D
4. What information does Configuration Management provide to the IT management of
an organisation?
A. Variations from the agreed service levels
B. Time spent on investigation and diagnosis by each support group
C. Number of incidents and problems per category
D. Details and history of the IT infrastructure
ANSWER: D
5. The words Delta, Full and Package describe different types of release. Which one of
the following statements is true?
A. A Package release contains hardware and software
B. Urgent changes are always Delta releases
C. A Delta release is only ever part of a Package release
D. A Full release releases the ‘normal release unit’ into the live environment
ANSWER: D
6. Availability Management is responsible for:
1. understanding the reliability of components to carry out a required function under
given conditions over a certain period of time
2. the ease with which maintenance of service components can be carried out
3. negotiating availability levels with customers
Which of these is correct?
A. Only 2 &3
B. Only 1 &2
C. 1,2&3
D. Only 1 &3
ANSWER: B
7. Which is the correct combination of concepts and ITIL processes?
1. Cl level
2. Disaster
3. Risk Analysis
4. Confidentiality
A Availability Management
B Configuration Management
C IT Service Continuity Planning
D Service Level Management
A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
B. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
C. l-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
D. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
Answer: A
8. A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) can contain different Configuration
Items (CIs). Which of the items below would NOT normally be regarded as a Cl?
A. A user name
B. A video monitor
C. A bought-in software package
D. A procedure
Answer: A
9. In relation to IT Service Continuity Planning, the severity of a disaster depends upon:
A. The time of day it occurs
B. How many people are available to assist in recovery
C. The type of disaster, whether flood, fire, etc
D. The impact upon customers’ businesses
Answer: D
10. What is the main difference between a CMDB {Configuration Management
Database) and a typical asset register?
A. A CMDB is a computerised system - most asset registers are not
B. There is no difference
C. Only hardware and software is recorded in a CMDB
D. A CMDB is a database that shows the relationships between items
Answer: D
11. Application Sizing is a technique used by Capacity Management. Why is Application
Sizing Important?
A. The availability of an IT service can be measured
B. The use of an IT application can be controlled
C. The maintenance of technical skills is important to application developers
D. The resources needed for an application and its performance can be predicted
Answer: D
12. When can the building, testing and implementation of a change begin?
A. If it is urgent, as soon as the Request for Change has been classified
B. As soon as there is a back-out plan for the change
C. As soon as the impact analysis has been discussed by the members of the Change
Advisory Board
D. As soon as the Request for Change has been formally authorized
Answer: D
13. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Change
Management and Configuration Management:
A. There are no dependencies between Configuration Management & Change
Management
B. If Change Management is implemented without Configuration Management; the result
will be less effective
C. Change Management cannot be implemented without Configuration Management
D. Change Management and Configuration Management must be implemented
simultaneously
Answer: B
14. Without a good Accounting System you cannot:
1. Know the full cost of services provided
2. Judge the efficiency of Problem Management
3. Recover costs related to usage, should you so wish
Which of the above is true?
A. 1.2&3
B. l&3only
C. l&2only
Answer: A
15. In which two Service Management processes would you be most likely to use a risk
analysis and management method?
A. Change & Cost Management
B. Availability Management & IT Service Continuity Management
C. Incident & Change Management
D. Service Level Management & IT Service Continuity Management
Answer: B
16. Salesmen are able to use their laptops from hotels to obtain information on travel
routes and traveling times. On several occasions they have found that when a certain
modem had been installed, communication was unsatisfactory. A temporary solution to
this fault has been identified. Which processes other than Incident Management are
involved in achieving a structural solution?
A. Change, Configuration, Release & Problem Management
B. Only Configuration, Problem & Release Management
C. Only Change & Release Management
D. Only Change, Release & Configuration Management
E. Only Problem & Release Management
Answer: A
17. Percentage availability is calculated as:
A. (Downtime x 100) / Agreed Service Time
B. (Agreed Service Time x 100)/Downtime
C. ((Agreed Service Time - Downtime) x 100)! Agreed Service Time
D. Agreed Service Time / ((Agreed Service Time - Downtime) x 100)
Answer: C
18. What is the difference between a Problem and a Known Error?
A. A Known Error is always the result of an Incident, a Problem is not
B. There is no real difference between a Problem and a Known Error
C. In the case of a Known Error there is a fault in the IT Infrastructure, with a Problem
there is not
D. In the case of a Known Error the underlying cause of the Problem is known
Answer: D
19. Which of the following are direct advantages of entering into Service Level
Agreements?
1. The expectations of both the IT customer and the provider should be aligned
2. Fewer incidents will occur
3. Unambiguous measurements of service provision will be provided
4. The number of changes that have to be backed out will decrease
A. 2&4
B. 1&2
C. 3&4
D. 1&3
Answer: D
20. Students at a college can send in their course work from their home PC via the
telephone Network.
They can then check the results on their PCs. A student needs an existing set of
programs that can be configured for the particular course that the student is following.
Which process is responsible for the correct configuring and transmission of the
programs?
A. Release Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Network Management
Answer: A
21. Consider the following statements:
1. ITIL processes should be implemented in such a way that the contribution to the
organisation is not only clear but also actually achieved
2. A characteristic of the ITIL approach is that a department is given responsibility for the
Service Support and Service Delivery processes, so that the resources allocated can be
used as efficiently as possible
Are these statements correct?
A. Both
B. Only2
C. Neither
D. Only 1
Answer: D
22. Consider the following metrics:
1. Number of incidents closed on without onward referral
2. Number of incidents correctly categorised at logging
3. Number of hardware faults reported
Which of the above are valid performance indicators for the Service Desk?
A. All three
B. l&2
C. 1&3
D. 2&3
Answer: B
23. Which of the following data is least likely to be used in the incident control process?
A. Incident category
B. Make/model of faulty item
C. Impact code
D. Cost of faulty item
Answer: D
24. One of the objectives of Problem Management is to minimise the impact of problems
on IT Services. Which one of the following activities is NOT a responsibility of Problem
Management?
A. Working with third party suppliers
B. Working with Availability Management to ensure agreed levels of service availability
C. Known Error management
D. Always taking charge of difficult incidents
Answer: D
25. A trend analysis of incident data indicates that over 30% of incidents regularly recur.
Which of the following activities will contribute most to cutting down the percentage of
regularly recurring incidents?
A. A presentation to the board of directors to explain the importance of Problem
Management
B. Implementation of the Problem Management process
C. The selection of an appropriate tool to log all incident data more accurately
D. The introduction of a single Service Desk number so customers know who to contact
Answer: B
26. Consider the following statements:
1. Customers should always be invoiced for the IT services they use
2. The only reason services are charged for is to make customers aware of the costs
involved in using those services
Are these statements correct?
A. Both
B. Only 1
C. Neither
D. Only 2
Answer: C
27. How frequently should CAB/EC meetings be held?
A. Daily
B. Monthly
C. Weekly
D. As required
Answer: D
28. Consider the following statements about IT Service Continuity Planning:
1. The intermediate recovery external option offers a remote installation, fully equipped
with all the required hardware, software, communications and environmental control
equipment
2. The intermediate recovery external option is often shared between multiple customers
and in the event of a disaster may not be available due to over-subscription
Are these statements correct?
A. Both
B. Neither
C. Only 1
D. Only 2
Answer: A
29. In Availability Management terms, what do the letters CIA stand for?
A. Component Impact Analysis
B. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
C. Configuration Item Availability
D. Central Intelligence Agency
Answer: B
30. Which of the following are NOT the concern of IT Financial Management?
A. Telephone charges
B. Invoicing
C. Differential charging
D. Reviewing IT service quality
Answer: D
31. If a customer complains that service levels are below those agreed in the SLA,
apparently due to a number of related hardware incidents, who is responsible for
ensuring the cause is investigated?
A. The Incident Manager
B. The Capacity Manager
C. The Problem Manager
D. The Availability Manager
Answer: C
32. Which of the following statements on IT Financial Management is correct?
A. An IT Financial Manager identifies the costs incurred by IT and might propose prices
for the services supplied
B. In order to be able to set up Budgeting and Accounting, SLAs and OLAs need to have
been agreed
C. It is only possible to be cost conscious if the customer is charged for services
D. IT Financial Management must agree charges with the customer before establishing
a Cost Model
Answer: A
33. Managing service availability is now more important than ever because
A. The dependence of customers on their IT has grown
B. System Management tools can now provide much more real time performance
management information
C. More IT systems are now outsourced
D. More service providers now have Service Level Agreements with their customers
Answer: A
34. Which of the following can be regarded as CIs?
1. Hardware
2. Documentation
3. Staff
4. Software
5. Network components
A. 1,4&5
B. 1,2,4&5
C. 1&4
D. All of them
Answer: D
35. Your organisation has just entered into a Gradual Recovery IT Service Continuity
agreement. Within the ITIL definition, which of the following lists is INCORRECT for what
you could find at the contingency site?
A. A building, electricity, telecommunications equipment, office space for technical staff
B. Stand-by generator, telecommunications equipment, system manuals, support staff,
water
C. A building, telecommunications equipment, a computer, support staff, documentation
D. A building, electricity, water, support staff, system manuals
Answer: C
36. A company has received messages concerning errors in the daily batch run which
handles the ordering of raw materials for the manufacturing process. This is probably
due to an incorrect change in the software. The change involved extending the “stock
number” field by two positions. This change was also introduced in a monthly program
that has not yet been run. The situation needs to be corrected very quickly to avoid
affecting manufacturing. What is the best possible solution to be adopted by Problem
Management when handling the error?
A. The errors are reported and, because the underlying cause is known, handled by
Change Management as a Request for Change with the status of ‘urgent change’
B. The errors are reported as Problems at the Service Desk and, because manufacturing
is involved, are directly introduced as Changes
C. The errors are reported as incidents to the Service Desk and after some research
they are identified as Known Errors, which can then be changed
D. The errors are reported as Incidents and a Problem is identified. After the cause of
the error has been established and a temporary workaround found, it is labeled as a
Known Error that can be corrected by raising a Request for Change
Answer : D
37. Which if the following would you NOT expect to see in an IT Service Continuity Plan?
A. Contact lists
B. The version number
C. Reference to change control procedures
D. Full Service Level Agreements
Answer: D
38. Consider the following statements:
1. Effective Change Management ensures that urgency and impact are keys to decisions
made on the scheduling of changes
2. Change Management controls all aspects of the change process
Which of these statements is true?
A. 1
B. Neither of them
C. 2
D. Both of them
Answer: D
39. Differential charging is a technique used in
A. FTA
B. Status Accounting
C. Demand Management
D. CRAMM
Answer: C
40. One of Release Management’s tasks is to set up a DHS. Which statement most
closely describes the DHS?
A. A DHS is a number of physical locations where baselines are stored
B. Before setting up a DHS a tool should first be purchased for releasing the hardware
into the live environment
C. A DHS is an area set aside for the secure storage of definitive hardware spares
D. A DHS is a database in which all definitive hardware Configuration Items are
recorded
Answer: C
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No. 9
1. Service Desk staff need:
1. A good telephone manner
2. Some technical appreciation of the supported services
3. Awareness of the likely business impact of service incidents
A. 1&2
B. 1,2&3
C. 2&3
D. 1&3
Answer: B
2. Which of the following can be OMITTED from an urgent software release in
exceptional
circumstances?
A. Undertaking full testing
B. Updating the CMDB
C. Incrementing the version number
D. Putting the amended version in the DSL
Answer: A
3. A good Incident Management process will:
A. Ensure that error corrections are treated as urgent changes
B. Diagnose the underlying cause of incidents quickly
C. Restore normal service operation as quickly as possible following an incident
D. All of the other answers
Answer: C
4. The primary responsibility of Incident Control is:
A. Keeping customers informed of future problems
B. Matching incidents with known errors
C. Restoring service following incidents
D. Raising multiple incidents to Problem Management
Answer: C
5. Which of the following statements best describes the level to which CIs would
normally be broken down:
A. The lowest possible level
B. The level at which they will be independently installed, changed or replaced
C. The level which best facilitates the identification of the root cause of all System
incidents
D. The level at which it is possible to identify the suppliers of all subcomponents
Answer: B
6. Which of the following activities is NOT the responsibility of Problem Management?
A. Co-coordinating major problem reviews
B. Determining the root cause of incidents
C. Providing management information on incidents, problems and known errors
D. Implementing error resolutions
Answer: D
7. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Charging is required in order to cost IT services
B. Budgeting and accounting for IT services is essential for effective Service
Management
C. It is better to budget and account for IT services before implementing charging
D. Charging may lead to the recovery of costs
Answer: A
8. Which of the following is necessary in order to start IT Services Continuity Planning?
A. Include continuity measures in Change Management procedures
B. Identify appropriate countermeasures
C. Conduct a business impact analysis
D. Establish a contract with an intermediate recovery provider
Answer: C
9. Status Accounting is an important part of which process?
A. IT Financial Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D
10. Which of the following is NOT a technique usually associated with Availability
Management?
A. Auto error detection
B. Duplexing
C. Analysing data
D. Queuing theory
Answer: D
11. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Service Level Agreements are between user departments and technical support
providers and are written in business language
B. Operational Level Agreements are between internal service providers and may be
written in technical language
C. Operational Level Agreements are between Service Level Management and external
providers and are written in business language
D. Service Level Agreements are between user departments and Service Level
Management and are written in technical language
Answer: B
12. Which is the correct combination of concepts and Service Management processes?
I Vulnerability
2 Maintainability
3 Resource
4 Impact
A Availability Management
B Capacity Management
C Problem Management
D IT Service Continuity Planning
A. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B.4-C
B. 1-B.2-A, 3-C.4-D
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
D. l-D.2-C, 3-A.4-B
Answer: A
13. Problem Management includes several core activities. Which one of the following
most accurately summarises these?
A. Problem control, error control, management reporting
B. Identification, control, status accounting, verification
C. Incident control, severity analysis, support allocation, reporting
D. Identification, severity analysis, support allocation, investigation
Answer: A
14. The Service Desk is unable to deal with a customer’s enquiry. What action should
they take?
A. Log the details and inform the customer of the incident number. Tell them someone
will contact them within an agreed time with an update. Retain ownership of the incident
but refer to appropriate second line support group. Monitor progress and keep customer
informed
B. Tell them to ring back if it happens again
C. Log the details and inform the customer of the incident number. Suggest they ring
back if they have not heard within 48 hrs
D. Suggest the customer contacts a third party
Answer: A
15. When writing an IT Service Continuity Plan it is essential to prepare for a return to
normal working.
Which of these is it essential to include in the section of the plan that deals with the
return to normal working?
A. Removal of data from standby equipment
B. A list of contacts for the emergency suppliers
C. Bonus payments for staff involved in the disaster
D. Creation of an updated version of the IT Service Continuity Plan
Answer: A
16. Which of the following best describes why an SLA should contain definitions of
terms?
A. To ensure that anywhere there is a measurement required within the SLA then it is
realistically measurable
B. To ensure that both the customer and IT can unambiguously understand the terms in
the SLA
C. To make sure that all clauses in the SLA make sense
D. To ensure that the customer’s understanding of a particular term is the one meant in
the SLA
Answer: B
17. Which of the following would NOT normally be discussed in a typical service review
with a customer?
A. Authorisation for changes to the service
B. Service performance trends
C. Corrective actions to be taken
D. Customer satisfaction with the service
Answer: A
18. Which of the following will NOT be provided by a good Service Desk?
A. Reduced requirement for IT knowledge throughout the user community
B. Effective correction of the root cause of incidents
C. Early warning of potential business IT operational failures
D. Keeping customer’s informed
Answer: B
19. Which of the following IT Service Continuity measures is likely to be the most
appropriate for 24x7 business critical system running on a mainframe?
A. Cold standby facility to be located in the car park
B. Reciprocal arrangement with a local company
C. Hot standby at a site some distance away
D. Dormant contract with a mainframe supplier
Answer: C
20. Impact assessment is NOT normally part of which of the following processes?
A. Problem Management
B. IT Service Continuity Planning
C. Incident Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: D
21. An overhead would normally be regarded as which of the following?
A. An indirect cost
B. A discounted charge
C. A direct cost
D. The market price
Answer: A
22. Consider these statements:
1. Service Capacity Management should ensure that the type, pattern and typical
resource requirements of all services is understood
2. Undertaking Service Capacity Management is sufficient to ensure that the
performance difficulties never arise
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A. Neither
B. Both
C. Only 2
D. Only 1
Answer: D
23. A properly implemented and tested IT Service Continuity Plan can help business
continuity by:
A. Planning the implementation of new services at times that don’t impact the business
B. Enabling a speedy recovery of service after a disaster
C. Reviewing trends in incidents and planning to avoid repetition
D. Having planned maintenance tasks that reduce the likelihood of incidents
Answer: B
24. From a well-informed User’s perspective, which of the following is a likely sequence
in the management of a service failure?
A. Incident Management, Change Management, Release Management, Problem
Management
B. Incident Management, Problem Management, Release Management, Change
Management
C. Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Management, Release
Management
D. Change Management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Release
Management
Answer: C
25. The Change Management function is NOT responsible for:
A. Scheduling a change to the network
B. Ensuring that a change to an application is prioritised
C. Ensuring that the impact of a change to hardware is fully assessed
D. Implementing the release of a software change
Answer: D
26. Which of the following need NOT be recorded as part of a Change Record?
A. The scheduled implementation date
B. Some details of the back-out plan
C. Any CAB recommendations
D. The names of the CAB members
Answer: D
27. Consider the following:
1. Details of a Cl must be entered into the CMDB after it is added to the live environment
2. A Cl consists of a number of component CIs
Which of the above statements is true in all cases?
A. Bothl&2
B. Neither
C. Only I
D. Only 2
Answer: B
28. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management
process?
A. Distributing software
B. The physical aspects of software control
C. Helping to determine the software release policy
D. Ensuring that CMDB entries concerning software CIs are verified
Answer: D
29. Which is the correct sequence of events for describing an incident lifecycle after the
incident has occurred?
A. Detection, Repair, Recovery, Restoration, Diagnosis
B. Detection, Recovery, Repair, Restoration, Diagnosis
C. Detection, Diagnosis, Recovery, Repair, Restoration
D. Detection, Diagnosis, Repair, Recovery, Restoration
Answer: D
30. Which of the following statements best describes a ‘problem’?
A. An incident which has been diagnosed and for which a resolution exists
B. An incident that has passed its service level for fixing
C. An incident that has occurred more than once
D. The unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents
Answer: D
31. By introducing budgeting and accounting for IT services, which of the following will
be a DIRECT benefit?
A. Better value for money
B. Clearer charging policies
C. Improved financial forecasting
D. Higher quality support
Answer: C
32. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Physical copies of all CIs are stored in the DSL
B. The DSL contains source code only
C. Release Management is responsible for managing the organisation’s rights and
obligations regarding software
D. A change may only be developed from non-definitive version of software in the case
of an urgent release
Answer: C
33. In which of the following circumstances is requesting an urgent change justified?
A. Only one small component requires changing and it is unlikely to affect any other
components
B. The CAB meeting has been cancelled because most of the members are unavailable
at the time previously agreed
C. The supplier has advised that previous versions will not be supported very much
longer
D. The change is needed to correct an error on a business critical system
Answer: D
34. The prime responsibility of Availability Management is:
A. To understand the behaviour of CIs
B. To deliver a level of availability that enables customers to satisfy their business
objectives
C. To negotiate and manage support contracts for hardware and software
D. To manage security and serviceability of all IT services
Answer: B
35. Which of the following is NOT a valid charging policy?
A. Cost recovery
B. Activity base costing
C. ‘Cost plus’ pricing
D. Market rate
Answer: B
36. Which of the following are likely members of the Change Advisory Board?
A. Problem Manager
B. Change Manager
C. All of them
D. Customer representatives
Answer: C
37. Which of these is NOT a purpose for which Service Capacity Management
information can be used?
A. DSL control
B. Systems throughput calculation
C. Network performance analysis
D. Demand Management
Answer: A
38. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a hardware Cl?
A. Number of items
B. What it costs
C. A supplier’s part number
D. A manufacturer’s serial number
Answer: A
39. Which of the following list will NOT have a direct impact upon IT capacity?
A. An increase in network bandwidth available
B. A reduction in transactions processed
C. A reduction in the number of files to be stored
D. An increase in the cost per transaction
Answer: D
40. Which of the following is most involved with the: Incident - Problem - Known Error -
Change lifecycle?
A. Service Support
B. Service Management
C. Service Delivery
D. Customers Services
Answer: A
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No.10
1. How can Service Level Management use data from the incident register at the Service
Desk?
Service Level Management uses this data ...
A. To draw up the Service Level Agreement (SLA).
B. To draw up reports about the number and nature of incidents in a certain period.
C. To determine the availability of an IT Service, on the basis of the number of incidents
resolved.
D. Together with other data to work out whether the service level agreed upon has been
achieved.
Answer: D
2. Which statement describes a Service Desk activity?
A. To function as the first point of customer contact.
B. To investigate the cause of disruptions for the customer.
C. To trace the cause of incidents.
Answer: A
3. Consider the following statements:
1. An SLA is a contract drawn up by the IT department which states what the customer
may and may not do with his computer.
2. A Service Catalogue describes concisely and specifically the IT services that the IT
department can offer a customer.
Which of these statements is correct?
A. Only the first
B. Only the second
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: B
4. What is the correct description of 'impact'?
A. The degree to which the provision of services is disrupted and the speed with which
this must be remedied
B. The degree to which the user indicates how quickly the incident must be resolved.
C. The effect that an incident has on the components of the IT infrastructure, including
the consequences for the service that has been agreed upon.
D. The effect that an incident has on the activities of the users and the speed with which
the incidents must be resolved.
Answer: C
5. Which task is a Problem Management responsibility?
A. To co-ordinate all modifications to the IT infrastructure.
B. To record incidents for later study.
C. To approve all modifications made to the Known Error database.
D. To identify user needs and modify the IT infrastructure based on such needs.
Answer: C
6. The manufacturer claims that the new line of central mainframes can reach an MTBF
of 5000 hours.
What does this mean?
A. That the mainframes have an average life of 5000 hours
B. That the mainframes operate continuously for an average of 5000 hours
C. That the mainframes will fail every 5000 hours
D. That the mainframe can operate continuously for a maximum of 5000 hours.
Answer: B
7. Network managers are overloaded with work. They hardly get a chance to manage
the network. One of the reasons for this is that users approach them directly to answer
all kinds of questions. Which ITIL process or function needs to be set up to improve this
situation?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Error Control
D. Service Desk
E. Incident Management
F. Problem Management
Answer: D
8. Data in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) may be updated only if an
order instruction has been given for this:
Which process gives this order?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Service Desk
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A
9. A change has taken place in the IT infrastructure. How is Change Management
related to the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? Change Management...
A. Checks whether the change has been made in the CMDB.
B. Carries out investigations into the degree of consistency in the CMDB.
C. Provides Configuration Management with the data required to implement the change
in the CMDB.
D. Implements the change in the CMDB and informs Configuration Management about
it.
Answer: C
10. Consider the following statements:
1. A change in the IT infrastructure is always the result of a change of a Service Level
2. A Service Level Agreement (SLA) exhibits many similarities to a procedure for
drawing up a Request for Change (RFC).
Are these statements correct?
A. Only the first
B. Only the second
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: D
11. The performance of the network in a large computer centre is monitored 24 hours a
day.
This produces data for which processes?
A. Availability Management, Capacity Management and Change Management
B. Availability Management, Capacity Management and Problem Management
C. Change Management, Financial Management and Service Level Management
D. Financial Management, Service Desk and Problem Management
Answer: B
12. The sequence of dealing with problems must be based on...
A. The category to which the problem belongs.
B. The impact of the problem.
C. The priority of the problem.
D. The urgency of the problem.
Answer: C
13. A new networked computer is installed to replace an existing PC. The old PC is
installed as a print server for the local area network.
Which process is responsible for registering this modification in the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management
Answer: B
14. A computer operator establishes that a memory disk is in danger of becoming
completely full.
He reports this to...
A. Capacity Management.
B. Change Management.
C. Planning & Control for IT Services
D. Service Level Management.
Answer: A
15. Because of its increased dependency on information systems, a large financial
institution decides that there must be plans for the provision of IT services following a
major interruption to the service.
Which process, therefore, should be implemented?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Service Management
Answer: B
16. A printer in a department of an insurance office has broken down. Hardware Support
wants to approach the supplier of the printer to remedy the defect.
Hardware Support can obtain data from Configuration Management about which of the
following:
1. The location of the printer
2. The type of maintenance contract
3. The number of disruptions the printer has experienced in the last six months
Which of the above is correct:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. 1,2, and 3
Answer: D
17. What information does the Service Desk provide to the IT management of an
organisation?
A. All deviations from the specified service levels
B. The growth of the IT infrastructure
C. The time spent on investigation and diagnosis for each department
D. The number of incidents per category
Answer: D
18. Which is the correct combination of concepts and ITIL processes?
1. CMDB
2. DSL
3. MTBF
4. SLA
a. Availability Management
b. Configuration Management
c. Service Level Management
d. Release Management
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
B. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a,4-c
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
D. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
Answer: B
19. Which of these tasks is a task of Problem Management?
A. Co-ordination of all changes to the IT infrastructure.
B. Classification of Requests for Change (RFCs).
C. Approval of all changes / modifications made to the Known-Error database.
D. Recognising user's requirements and subsequently implementing changes to the IT
infrastructure.
Answer: C
20. Which of the following activities does the Service Desk undertake?
A. Error Control, Recording Incidents, Status Accounting
B. Impact determination, Problem Management, Verification
C. Incident Management, Providing Management Information, Recording CIs
D. Incident Management, Providing Management Information, Recording Incidents
Answer: D
21.Key features of all IT services are recorded in...
A. The Service Catalogue.
B. The Service Level Management Database.
C. Service Level Requirements.
D. Service Level Agreements.
Answer: A
22. Which activity is a Release Management responsibility?
A. To check whether any illegal software on computers within the organisation.
B. To store the original versions of all authorised software within the organisation.
C. To register where each software version is available.
Answer: B
23.Give one reason why charging for IT services is an important element of Financial
Management?
A. The availability of an IT service can be measured.
B. The resources needed for an application can be determined.
C. The use of IT services can be influenced.
D. Scenarios for capacity planning can be investigated.
Answer: C
24. Which of the concepts below belongs to IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Serviceability
B. Maintainability
C. Resilience
D. Vulnerability
Answer: D
25.The Service Desk has handled 2317 calls this month.
What are the majority of these calls likely to include?
A. Modifications to Service Level Agreements (SLAs).
B. Notices regarding modified Configuration Items (CIs).
C. Requests to the IT organisation for user support.
Answer: C
26. For which ITIL process is the determination of priorities based on impact and
urgency an essential activity?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A
27.A user calls the Service Desk with a complaint that, when using a particular
application, an error always occurs that breaks his connection to the network.
Which process has overall responsibility for tracing the underlying cause?
A. Service Desk
B. Network Management
C. Problem Management
D. System Management
E. Incident Management
Answer: C
28. Which of the examples below is NOT an example of a configuration item?
A. A user manual
B. A company's organisation chart
C. A systems update procedure
D. A unique identification code
Answer: D
29.Service Level Requirements are used in the Service Level Management process.
Which statement best describes what these Service Level Requirements represent?
A. The amount of defined IT service that the customer requires.
B. What the IT organisation expects of the customer.
C. The conditions required for the Service Level Agreement (SLA).
D. A paragraph of the SLA with additional specifications required to execute the SLA.
Answer: A
30. A steel company merges with a competitor. The IT departments, along with the IT
infrastructures of both companies will be combined.
Which process is responsible for determining the required disk and memory space
required for applications running in the combined IT infrastructure?
A. Application Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Computer Operations Management
D. Release Management
Answer: B
31. A new disk unit has to be installed to solve a problem with making back-ups on the
network, and the procedures for making back-ups have to be changed. Through which
process does formal approval have to be given for carrying out the changes?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Network Management
D. Problem Management
Answer: A
32. Given the following formula:
Availability percentage = ((i-ii)/iii)*100
III What should be filled in for i, ii and iii?
A. I Reliability II Duration of fault III Agreed time
B. I Reliability II Duration of fault III Resilience
C. I Maintainability II Resilience III Resilience
D. I Maintainability II Resilience III Maintainability
E. I Agreed time II Duration of fault III Agreed time
Answer :E
33. Consider the following activities:
1. Change categorisation
2. Change implementation
3. Change review
4. Change scheduling
5. Filtering requests for change
In which sequence should these activities be carried out in order to implement a change
in the IT infrastructure in a controlled fashion?
A. 1-4-5-2-3
B. 1 -5-4-3-2
C. 4-1-5-3-2
D. 5-1-4-2-3
E. 5-1-2-4-3
Answer: D
34. Which function is not part of Financial Management for IT services?
A. Budgeting
B. Charging
C. Procurement
D. Pricing
Answer: C
35. It is important for the operation of a given application that the version of the software
installed on each of the computers on the network is the same.
Which process is responsible for this?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Network Management
D. Release Management
Answer: D
36. Consider the following statements.
1. To determine the impact of change it is necessary to understand the structure of the
IT services and the way they support the business processes concerned.
2. The relationships between the various components of the infrastructure play an
important role in determining the impact of a change. Are these statements correct?
A. Only the first
B. Only the second
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: C
37. You work at the Service Desk of an organisation. A user calls up to say that his
terminal does not function. This is a (n)...
A. Incident
B. Known Error
C. Problem
D. Request for Change
Answer: A
38. What is the consequence when the Configuration Item (Cl) level is too high?
A. Certain parts of the infrastructure cannot be checked and managed properly.
B. Certain problems cannot be analysed because the information available is
inadequate.
C. There is insufficient assurance that the information provided correctly reflects reality.
Answer: A
39.To carry out the planned installation of new software releases, the network server
needs expanding. Which process is responsible for investigating the required disk space
of the network server?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Network Management
D. Release Management
Answer: A
40. An organisation starts to use Intranet and e-mail. As many 'images' are sent back
and forth over the network, its capacity needs expanding. Which process is suitable for
approving this capacity expansion?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Network Management
D. Problem Management
Answer: B
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No.11
1. Consider the following statements; which is NOT true?
A. Change Management is responsible for providing a detailed specification of the effect
on CIs of an authorised change.
B. Change Management keeps a record of all changes by logging, tracking and
reviewing them.
C. Change Management receives, records and helps allocate priorities to all RFCs.
D. Change Management will ensure that adequate back-out plans are prepared before
changes are implemented.
Answer: A
2. A user reports to the Service Desk a loss of the network connection that occurs
repeatedly when using a specific application. Which ITIL process is responsible for
tracing the cause?
A. Availability Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management
Answer: C
3. A major change to an existing service is to be designed and built and the issue of
what Configuration Management is responsible for has been raised. For which of the
following activities does Configuration Management NOT have a responsibility?
A. Quality assurance of the software modules.
B. Controlling the completeness and correctness of all data about the software modules.
C. Naming and recording data about software modules.
D. Registering and monitoring the status of the software modules
Answer: A
4. The Service Desk is informed that a user has forgotten her password after her
holiday. This only affects the one user. The Service Desk and the user are both aware
that solving this incident will take only a few minutes. >From the information given, you
would say that...
A. The impact is high
B. The priority is high
C. The urgency is high
D. Little can be said about impact, priority or urgency
Answer: D
5. A serious incident has occurred. The assigned solution team is unable to resolve the
problem within the agreed time. The Incident Manager is called in. Which form of
escalation describes the above sequence of events?
A. Formal escalation
B. Functional escalation
C. Hierarchical escalation
D. Operational escalation
Answer: C
6. The successful diagnosis of a problem results in a known error. On the basis of this
known error a request for change may be raised. The known error record may be closed
when...
A. A review of the change has led to a satisfactory result.
B. The proposal for change is lodged with Change Management.
C. The request for change is authorised by the Change Advisory Board.
D. Incidents related to the known error don't occur any more.
Answer: A
7. If a company decides to charge its internal customers for the IT services they use in
order to improve general cost awareness, which function will make sure that the charges
and the services to which they relate are formally agreed and documented?
A. Service Level Management.
B. Financial Management for IT Services.
C. Local Management.
D. Customer Management.
Answer: A
8. Which statement best describes a Problem?
A. One or more Known Errors.
B. A known cause of one or more disruptions.
C. An unknown cause of one or more incidents.
D. A Known Error with one or more incidents.
Answer: C
9. Which best describes the contents of the Definitive Software Library?
A. All the software likely to be needed by in-house software developers and maintainers.
B. Copies of all live software used on the infrastructure.
C. Authorised versions of all software used on the infrastructure.
D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing.
Answer: C
10. Performance Management and Resource Management are parts of which process?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B
11. Which one of the following is NOT a task of Capacity Management?
A. Monitoring overall performance of the IT infrastructure.
B. Sizing and or modeling of new applications.
C. Procuring of new / upgraded hardware.
D. Assessing the possible benefits of new technology to the organisation.
Answer: C
12. A new service is to go live tomorrow. Which of the following should be available at
the Service Desk?
1. The Service Level Manager to take the heat out of any angry confrontations very
quickly.
2. Support scripts.
3. The appropriate change schedule.
4. Network specialists.
A. 1 and 4.
B. 2 and 3.
C. 1,2 and 3.
D. All of them.
Answer: B
13. Risk Management is an essential part of one of the following pairs of functions,
which pair?
A. Problem Management & Capacity Management.
B. Availability Management & Service Level Management.
C. IT Service Continuity Management & Financial Management for IT Services.
D. IT Service Continuity Management & Availability Management.
Answer: D
14. 'Maintainability' is best described as:
A. The contractual conditions under which infrastructure components are maintained.
B. The ability of a Cl to be retained in or restored to a condition in which it can perform
its required functions.
C. An umbrella term used to described serviceability, resilience and reliability.
D. The ability of a set of configuration items to maintain a service when one or more of
the CIs have failed.
Answer: B
15. Which of the following are prime responsibilities of Availability Management?
1. To plan for and monitor the availability of IT services agreed in SLA's.
2. To negotiate the availability levels in SLA's.
3. To record details of unavailability events.
4. To initiate changes to the infrastructure to prevent failures of availability.
A. 1 and 2.
B. 3 and 4.
C. All of them.
D. 1 and 4.
Answer: D
16. The steps in the Incident Management process might best be described as:
A. Incident recording and alerting, initial support and classification, investigation and
diagnosis, resolution and recovery, closure.
B. Incident recording, initial codification and allocation, maintaining customer contact,
service recovery.
C. First line incident support, day to day contact with users, business system support,
management reporting on IT services quality.
Answer: A
17. In which cases must a review take place after implementation of a change?
A. If another incident of the same type occurs again.
B. Always.
C. At the request of the person who submitted the change request.
D. Randomly.
Answer: B
18. Consider the following statements.
1.To be able to define Service Desk impact codes, it is necessary to have
information about the structure of the IT services and how they provide
support for the business processes.
2.The criteria for determining the impact codes are established in consultation
with the organisation.
3.The relationships between the various components in the infrastructure
play an important role in determining the impact.
Are these statements correct?
A. only the first and second
B. only the first and third
C. only the second and third
D. all three
Answer: D
19. A Service Desk is suddenly inundated with phone calls from customers who cannot
work any more. After questioning callers it soon becomes clear that an important system
on a central UNIX server has failed.
For which of the following actions is the Service Desk NOT responsible?
A. The categorisation of incoming calls.
B. Identifying the cause of the failure.
C. The prioritisation of incoming calls.
D. The escalation of the incidents.
Answer: B
20. The management of ABC Ltd. has insisted that each request for a new workstation
installation be handled with optimum efficiency and effectiveness.
Which ITIL process is designed to achieve this desired outcome?
Change Management
Customer Liaison
Problem Management
Service Level Management
Answer: A
21. What is the most important advantage an organisation should gain from establishing
a Definitive Software Library?
A. Only tested and certified software versions will be used in the organization
B. The owner of the Definitive Software Library has the option to decide which
software is used in an organization
C. The end users can choose from a wide range of controlled and certified software
D. A greater number of software versions can be offered to the end users.
Answer: A
22. Which of the following best describes a Configuration Baseline?
A. The standard configuration for the Configuration Management Database (CMDB).
B. A description of a standardised Configuration Item (Cl).
C. A set of Configuration Items (CIs) that is delivered once.
D. A recorded snapshot of a product or service, to provide a basis for a configuration
auditor regression.
Answer: D
23. Which statement defines the role of the Definitive Software Library (DSL) in the
Release Management process?
A. A physical storage area for the original versions of all authorised software in use.
B. A reference manual that includes all software documentation.
C. A registration tool for all software items.
D. A type of Configuration Management Database (CMDB) for software.
Answer: A
24. Your Network Department has made an agreement with an external organisation in
order to fulfill its agreement with its internal customer.
Where would the agreement with the external organisation be specified?
A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
B. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C. Service Level Requirement (SLR)
D. Underpinning Contract (UC)
Answer: D
25. In an organisation with widely distributed Service Desk which one of the following is
most important?
A. That all staff speak the same language.
B. That all incidents recording is via the 24-hour clock.
C. That they share a common means of recording information for analysis.
D. That the Service Desk staff have access to a common pool of problem solvers.
Answer: C
26. Which task is the responsibility of Configuration Management?
A. Convening the Configuration Advisory Board.
B. Physically managing software items.
C. Installing equipment at the workplace.
D. Recording the relationships between Configuration Items (Cls).
Answer: D
27. A delivery of PC's is received in the goods inwards department. The status of the
PC's has to be changed from "ordered" to "in stock". Which function is responsible for
recording this change of status?
A. Financial Management for IT Services.
B. Problem Management.
C. Configuration Management.
D. Change Management.
Answer: C
28. Security is one of the significant elements of:
A. Capacity Management.
B. Availability Management.
C. Resource Management.
Answer: B
29. Which of the following statements are true? The Change Advisory Board (CAB)
should ensure that the proposed changes are assessed for:
1. The likely impact on recovery plans.
2. The effect of not implementing the change.
3. The resources required to implement the change.
4. The likely impact on capacity and performance.
A. 1,2 and 3.
B. All of them.
C. 2,3 and 4.
D. 1,2 and 4.
Answer: B
30. What is the primary objective of error control?
A. To figure out the details for work-arounds.
B. To resolve Known Errors through the Change Management process.
C. To recognise and register Known Errors.
D. To register and manage Known Errors.
Answer: B
31. The best Mission Statement for Capacity Management is:
A. To ensure that cost justifiable IT capacity, matched to the agreed needs of the
customers, always exists.
B. To ensure that sufficient IT capacity exists to meet customer demands during the
current procurement cycle.
C. To ensure that at times of peak demands, sufficient IT capacity exists and that such
capacity is provided at minimum cost to the business.
Answer: A
32. When processing a Request for Change (RFC), the Change Manager initiates a
number of activities. Which action is required if this involves a complex change?
A. The Change Manager reports the change to Problem Management.
B. The Change Manager reports the change to Incident Management.
C. The Change Manager presents the change to the Change Advisory Board.
D. The Change Manager presents the change to the IT Manager.
Answer: C
33. Which of the listed tasks are regarded as proactive?
1. Control of Known Errors.
2. Reviewing incident and problem analysis reports to identify trends.
3. Preventing problems in one service being replicated in another.
4. Identifying the root cause of incidents.
A. 1 and 4.
B. 1,2 and 3.
C. 2 and 3.
D. 1 and 3.
Answer: C
34. The percentage of business operations support requests closed without requiring
further action is an effectiveness metric of:
A. Availability Management.
B. Problem Management.
C. The Service Desk.
D. Service Level Management.
Answer: C
35. Which statement correctly describes the difference between Asset Management and
Configuration Management?
A. Asset Management only deals with what is owned; Configuration Management deals
with everything in the infrastructure.
B. Asset Management is a superset of Configuration Management because it includes
non-IT assets such as chairs and tables.
C. Asset Management deals with the financial aspects of Configuration Items (CIs);
Configuration Management only deals with the technical details of the infrastructure.
D. Configuration Management goes much further than Asset Management because it
also specifies the relationships between assets.
Answer: D
36. Which of the following describes the normal sequence of events for fault resolution
A. Problem - Incident - Change - Known Error.
B. Incident - Problem - Change - Known Error
C. Incident - Problem - Known Error - Change.
D. Problem - Incident - Known Error - Change.
Answer: C
37. Consider the following statements :
1. SLAs should define roles & responsibilities on both sides of the agreement.
2. SLAs should be regularly monitored and reports should be produced and circulated.
3. Underpinning contracts should be reviewed before SLAs are signed.
A. None are correct.
B. 1 & 2 are correct.
C. 2 & 3 are correct.
D. All are correct.
Answer: D
38. Customers find that during acceptance tests response times do not always meet the
level specified in the Service Level Requirement. Nevertheless they decide to introduce
the new application. Which process is responsible for the registration and processing of
this shortcoming after 'go live'?
A. Capacity Management.
B. The application developers.
C. Problem Management.
D. Service Level Management.
Answer: C
39. Which ITIL process uses Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: A
40. Which of these is NOT true? Availability levels will depend upon:
A. Reliability of components.
B. Component expenditure.
C. Resilience to failure.
D. Quality of maintenance / support.
Answer: B
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No. 12
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Problem Management may be involved when a major incident occurs
B. The Service Desk monitors problems throughout their lifecycles
C. Problem Management is responsible for managing the resolution of problems
D. Problem Management is responsible for Error Control
Answer: B
2. For which of the following activities is the Service Desk NOT responsible?
A. Impact analysis
B. Root cause identification
C. Categorisation and prioritisation
D. Escalation
Answer: B
3. Which of these is NOT a Capacity Management activity?
A. Tuning
B. Demand Management
C. Application sizing
D. Maintainability
Answer: D
4. Following the release of a software upgrade to fix a known error, which area is
responsible for ensuring that the CMDB has been updated correctly?
A. Change Management
B. Problem Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Release Management
Answer: C
5. Consider the following situations:
1. An incident exceeds the downtime stipulated within a SLA
2. The business impact of an incident changes due to unforeseen circumstances
3. The number of users impacted by an incident is greater than first thought
4. A senior user in the customer's organisation complains about the lack of progress
being made on a particular incident
Which of the above could be valid reasons for the Service Desk to invoke escalation
procedures?
A. All four
B. 2, 3 & 4
C. 1, 2 & 3
D. 1, 3 & 4
Answer: A
6. A customer has requested a review of charges for services provided under an SLA.
Within the SLA there is provision for this. Who will review this with the customer?
A. The IT Finance Manager
B. The Configuration Manager
C. The Service Level Manager
D. The Change Manager
Answer: C
7. Which of the following is the last activity in the Problem Management process?
A. The referral of any associated RFCs to Change Management
B. Log the problem
C. Closing the Problem Record, having completed all Problem Management activities
D. Initiating a review of the problem and its impact
Answer: C
8. Which of the following justifications could be considered a valid reason for a business
not having any continuity plans for a specific IT service?
A. The IT department does not have the skills for developing continuity plans
B. The IT department has made a decision that the risk of disaster is small
C. The business does not have time to be involved in preparing continuity plans
D. A management decision has been made following a business impact assessment
Answer: D
9. Which of the following is NOT a Problem Management responsibility?
A. Ownership of an incident throughout its lifecycle
B. Investigation & Diagnosis
C. Raising Requests for Change
D. Maintenance of a known error database
Answer: A
10. Change Management ensures that scheduling decisions are based on:
1. Business urgency
2. Business impact
3. Resource requirements and availability
Which of the above are correct?
A. 1 & 2
B. All three
C. 1 & 3
D. 2 & 3
Answer: B
11. Writing-off an equal amount of an asset's value each year, usually a fixed
percentage of cost, is known as ...
A. Transfer costs
B. Discounted cash flow
C. Net book value
D. Depreciating
Answer: D
12. When establishing a new SLA, or amending an existing one, which of the following
should the Service Level Manager take into account:
1. That the new, or revised, SLA reflects the targets agreed with the customer
2. That the conditions in other SLAs can continue to be met
3 . The potential impact on existing IT Service Continuity plans
Of the above, which are true?
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 3
C. 1, 2 & 3
D. 1 & 3
Answer: C
13. There is a network incident that affects 200 users. At the same time the Managing
Director's printer has broken and he wants to print a report now. Which of the following
statements can be deduced from this information?
A. There is insufficient information to determine which incident has the higher priority
B. The Managing Director's printer must be fixed because of the higher business impact
C. Both incidents have an equally high priority
D. The network incident has a higher priority than the Managing Director's printer
because it affects a lot more people
Answer: A
14. Which of the following is NOT a concern of Resource Capacity Management?
A. Differential charging for exceptional workloads
B. Understanding new applications in order to assess their potential impact on the
infrastructure
C. Service resilience
D. Use of alternative technologies
Answer: A
15. Under an ITIL Change Management process, once a change has been built, who
should undertake further testing?
A. The Change Builder
B. The Change Manager
C. The Change Advisory Board
D. An independent tester
Answer: D
16. Which of these items are techniques of IT Modeling?
1. Analytical
2. Simulation
3. Demand
4. Resource
A. 3 & 4
B. 1 & 2
C. 2 & 3
D. 1 & 4
Answer: B
17. A known error occurs when:
A. An error has occurred several times and has been passed to Problem Management
B. An error occurs that has not been diagnosed and for which a circumvention does not
yet exist
C. A problem has been diagnosed and a resolution or circumvention exists
D. The resolution of a problem has been implemented
Answer: C
18. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Maintaining the agreed level of confidentiality is a concern of Availability Management
B. Availability Management should contribute to the design and development of new
software products
C. Availability Management negotiates availability levels with customers to ensure that
their requirements are met
D. Availability Management is concerned with the performance of hardware CIs
Answer: C
19. The term Variant' is best used to describe:
A. Unauthorised or illegal versions of software
B. An incident which has the same impact as an existing known error but a different root
cause
C. A Cl based on another, but with minor amendments applied
D. The difference between forecast and actual resource usage
Answer: C
20. Consider the following information:
1. Type
2. Unique identifier
3. Version number
4. Copy number
Which of the above details should be recorded for every Cl recorded within the CMDB?
A. 1 & 2
B. 1, 3 & 4
C. All of them
D. 2 & 3
Answer: A
21. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the IT Service Continuity planning
team?
A. Outlining possible measures to protect an IT service
B. Deciding the business criticality of an IT service
C. Testing the plans for recovery of an IT service
D. Identifying the risks to an IT service
Answer: B
22. Which of the following abbreviations most accurately represents 'downtime'?
A. MTTR
B. CFIA
C. MTBF
D. MTBSI
Answer: A
23. Which is the correct combination of terms and Service Management processes?
1 CMDB
2 CFIA
3 DHS
4 OLA
A Availability Management
B Release Management
C Service Level Management
D Configuration Management
A. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A.4-B
B. 1-D, 2-A, 3-6,4-C
C. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C.4-D
D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B.4-A
Answer: B
24. Which of the following best describes 'reliability'?
A. The combination of confidentiality, integrity and maintainability
B. The ability of a service to remain functional even though some components have
failed
C. The ability of a Cl to remain functional under given conditions
D. The ability of a Cl to be retained in, or restored to, an operational state
Answer: C
25. Which of the following activities is the responsibility of Change Management?
A. Reviewing changes to ensure they have worked
B. Creating a change to rectify a known error
C. Determining the release strategy for a major change
D. Implementing a software change at a remote site
Answer: A
26. Within an ITIL compliant Change Management process, who initially assesses the
category of a proposed change?
A. Change Manager
B. Change Advisory Board
C. Change Requestor
D. Change Implementer
Answer: A
27. An advantage of a gradual recovery portable approach is that:
A. Restoration of telecommunications will be simple
B. It can be established in a convenient location
C. It is the cheapest option
D. Access to the site will be available immediately
Answer: B
28. Which of the following activities is NOT part of the release process:
A. Moving software from the DSL to the development environment
B. Moving software from the DSL to the live environment
C. Moving software from the development to the test environment
D. Moving software from the live environment to the DSL
Answer: D
29. Charging business users a premium rate for using resources at peak times is known
as:
A. Peak resource charging
B. Differential charging
C. Notional charging
D. Discounting
Answer: B
30. Which of the following statements best describes the Definitive Software Library?
A. A secure software library containing all versions of software CIs in their definitive,
quality controlled, form
B. A logical library, held securely on computer, containing all versions of software CIs
C. A secure, physical library containing the latest version of every software Cl in a quality
controlled manner
D. A logical library, held securely on computer, containing the latest version of every
software Cl
Answer: A
31. Which is the correct combination of concepts and Service Management processes?
1 Risks
2 Reliability
3 Thresholds
4 Roll-outs
A Capacity Management
B Release Management
C Availability Management
D IT Service Continuity Planning
A. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
B. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
C. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
Answer: C
32. One reason for building a Cost Model is so that:
A. Charges will reflect what the market will bear
B. It can be related directly to its constituent units
C. The costs of IT can be aligned to business activities
D. It is easy for IT to calculate
Answer: C
33. In terms of IT Service Continuity Management, a 'Reciprocal Arrangement' means:
A. Taking the best of all other approaches
B. Having a mirrored service in another location
C. Entering into an agreement with another organisation using similar technology
D. Not having more than one other site to move to
Answer: C
34. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Release Management process?
A. To assess the impact of software changes
B. To agree the content of software releases, through liaison with Change Management
C. To design and implement effective procedures for the distribution of changes to
software across the organisation
D. To prevent software viruses entering the organisation
Answer: A
35. Risk assessment is NOT a major part of which of the following processes?
A. Service Level Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Change Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A
36. Which of the following is most involved with the day-to-day provision of quality
services?
A. Customer Services
B. Applications Development
C. Service Delivery
D. Service Support
Answer: D
37. The Service Level Manager requires confirmation that the internal Service Desk can
answer Customer calls within 10 seconds. In which document might the Service Desk's
agreement to this requirement be recorded?
A. Internal Specification Sheet
B. Operational Level Agreement
C. Service Level Agreement
D. An underpinning third party contract
Answer: B
38. Which of the following is NOT part of the role of the Service Desk?
A. Providing support to the user community
B. Resolving the root causes of incidents
C. Acting as day-to-day interface between IT services and users
D. Monitoring the progress of incidents
Answer: B
39. Which of the following would NOT normally be regarded as one of the major input
cost elements of an IT service?
A. Accommodation
B. Transfer
C. Software
D. Cost Model
Answer: D
40. Items of information stored in the CMDB relating to a specific Cl are known as:
A. Components
B. Features
C. Attributes
D. Characteristics
Answer: C
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No. 13
1. Which of the following lists best describes the key attributes needed by Service Desk
Staff?
A. Good interpersonal skills; tenacious; technically astute; firm
B. Business aware; articulate; methodical; tolerant; good interpersonal skills
C. Logical; methodical; tenacious; forthright; analytical
D. Well presented; technical specialist; numerate; good interpersonal skills
ANSWER: B
2. Which of the ITIL processes is responsible for ensuring the organisation is aware of
new and changing technology?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. Configuration Management
ANSWER: A
3. Which incidents should be logged by the Service Desk?
A. Only incidents not resolved at logging
B. Only incidents from bona fide customers
C. All incidents except simple enquiries
D. All incidents
ANSWER: D
4. What information does Configuration Management provide to the IT management of
an organisation?
A. Variations from the agreed service levels
B. Time spent on investigation and diagnosis by each support group
C. Number of incidents and problems per category
D. Details and history of the IT infrastructure
ANSWER: D
5. The words Delta, Full and Package describe different types of release. Which one of
the following statements is true?
A. A Package release contains hardware and software
B. Urgent changes are always Delta releases
C. A Delta release is only ever part of a Package release
D. A Full release releases the 'normal release unit' into the live environment
ANSWER: D
6. Availability Management is responsible for:
1. understanding the reliability of components to carry out a required function under
given conditions over a certain period of time
2. the ease with which maintenance of service components can be carried out
3. negotiating availability levels with customers
Which of these is correct?
A. Only 2 & 3
B. Only 1 & 2
C. 1, 2 & 3
D. Only 1 S3
ANSWER: B
7. Which is the correct combination of concepts and ITIL processes?
1. Cl level
2. Disaster
3. Risk Analysis
4. Confidentiality
A Availability Management
B Configuration Management
C IT Service Continuity Planning
D Service Level Management
A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-c, 4-a B
B. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-a
C. 1-d, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
D. 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
Answer: A
8. A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) can contain different Configuration
Items (CIs). Which of the items below would NOT normally be regarded as a Cl?
A. A user name
B. A video monitor
C. A bought-in software package
D. A procedure
Answer: A
9. In relation to IT Service Continuity Planning, the severity of a disaster depends upon:
A. The time of day it occurs
B. How many people are available to assist in recovery
C. The type of disaster, whether flood, fire, etc
D. The impact upon customers' businesses
Answer: D
10. What is the main difference between a CMDB {Configuration Management
Database) and a typical asset register?
A. A CMDB is a computerised system - most asset registers are not
B. There is no difference
C. Only hardware and software is recorded in a CMDB
D. A CMDB is a database that shows the relationships between items
Answer: D
11. Application Sizing is a technique used by Capacity Management. Why is Application
Sizing Important?
A. The availability of an IT service can be measured
B. The use of an IT application can be controlled
C. The maintenance of technical skills is important to application developers
D. The resources needed for an application and its performance can be predicted
Answer: D
12. When can the building, testing and implementation of a change begin?
A. If it is urgent, as soon as the Request for Change has been classified
B. As soon as there is a back-out plan for the change
C. As soon as the impact analysis has been discussed by the members of the Change
Advisory Board
D. As soon as the Request for Change has been formally authorised
Answer: D
13. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Change
Management and Configuration Management:
A. There are no dependencies between Configuration Management & Change
Management
B. If Change Management is implemented without Configuration Management; the result
will be less effective
C. Change Management cannot be implemented without Configuration Management
D. Change Management and Configuration Management must be implemented
simultaneously
Answer: B
14. Without a good Accounting System you cannot:
1. Know the full cost of services provided
2. Judge the efficiency of Problem Management
3. Recover costs related to usage, should you so wish
Which of the above is true?
A. 1.2&3
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 1 & 2 only
Answer: A
15. In which two Service Management processes would you be most likely to use a risk
analysis and management method?
A. Change & Cost Management
B. Availability Management & IT Service Continuity Management
C. Incident & Change Management
D. Service Level Management & IT Service Continuity Management
Answer: B
16. Salesmen are able to use their laptops from hotels to obtain information on travel
routes and traveling times. On several occasions they have found that when a certain
modem had been installed, communication was unsatisfactory.
A temporary solution to this fault has been identified. Which processes other than
Incident Management are involved in achieving a structural solution ?
A. Change, Configuration, Release & Problem Management
B. Only Configuration, Problem & Release Management
C. Only Change & Release Management
D. Only Change, Release & Configuration Management
E. Only Problem & Release Management
Answer: A
17. Percentage availability is calculated as:
A. (Downtime x 100) / Agreed Service Time
B. (Agreed Service Time x 100) /Downtime
C. ((Agreed Service Time - Downtime) x 100) / Agreed Service Time
D. Agreed Service Time / ((Agreed Service Time - Downtime) x 100)
Answer: C
18. What is the difference between a Problem and a Known Error?
A. A Known Error is always the result of an Incident, a Problem is not
B. There is no real difference between a Problem and a Known Error
C. In the case of a Known Error there is a fault in the IT Infrastructure, with a Problem
there is not
D. In the case of a Known Error the underlying cause of the Problem is known
Answer: D
19. Which of the following are direct advantages of entering into Service Level
Agreements?
1. The expectations of both the IT customer and the provider should be aligned
2. Fewer incidents will occur
3. Unambiguous measurements of service provision will be provided
4. The number of changes that have to be backed out will decrease
A. 2 & 4
B. 1 & 2
C. 3 & 4
D. 1 & 3
Answer: D
20. Students at a college can send in their course work from their home PC via the
telephone Network. They can then check the results on their PCs. A student needs an
existing set of programs that can be configured for the particular course that the student
is following. Which process is responsible for the correct configuring and transmission of
the programs?
A. Release Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Network Management
Answer: A
21. Consider the following statements:
1. ITIL processes should be implemented in such a way that the contribution to the
organisation is not only clear but also actually achieved
2. A characteristic of the ITIL approach is that a department is given responsibility for the
Service Support and Service Delivery processes, so that the resources allocated can be
used as efficiently as possible Are these statements correct?
A. Both
B. Only 2
C. Neither
D. Only 1
Answer: D
22. Consider the following metrics:
1. Number of incidents closed on without onward referral
2. Number of incidents correctly categorised at logging
3. Number of hardware faults reported
Which of the above are valid performance indicators for the Service Desk?
A. All three
B. 1 & 2
C. 1 & 3
D. 2 & 3
Answer: B
23. Which of the following data is least likely to be used in the incident control process?
A. Incident category
B. Make/model of faulty item
C. Impact code
D. Cost of faulty item
Answer: D
24. One of the objectives of Problem Management is to minimise the impact of problems
on IT Services.
Which one of the following activities is NOT a responsibility of Problem Management?
A. Working with third party suppliers
B. Working with Availability Management to ensure agreed levels of service availability
C. Known Error management
D. Always taking charge of difficult incidents
Answer: D
25. A trend analysis of incident data indicates that over 30% of incidents regularly recur.
Which of the following activities will contribute most to cutting down the percentage of
regularly recurring incidents?
A. A presentation to the board of directors to explain the importance of Problem
Management
B. Implementation of the Problem Management process
C. The selection of an appropriate tool to log all incident data more accurately
D. The introduction of a single Service Desk number so customers know who to contact
Answer: B
26. Consider the following statements:
1. Customers should always be invoiced for the IT services they use
2. The only reason services are charged for is to make customers aware of the costs
involved in using those services Are these statements correct?
A. Both
B. Only 1
C. Neither
D. Only 2
Answer: C
27. How frequently should CAB/EC meetings be held?
A. Daily
B. Monthly
C. Weekly
D. As required
Answer: D
28. Consider the following statements about IT Service Continuity Planning:
1. The intermediate recovery external option offers a remote installation, fully equipped
with all the required hardware, software, communications and environmental control
equipment
2. The intermediate recovery external option is often shared between multiple customers
and in the event of a disaster may not be available due to over-subscription
Are these statements correct?
A. Both
B. Neither
C. Only 1
D. Only 2
Answer: A
29. In Availability Management terms, what do the letters CIA stand for?
A. Component Impact Analysis
B. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
C. Configuration Item Availability
D. Central Intelligence Agency
Answer: B
30. Which of the following are NOT the concern of IT Financial Management?
A. Telephone charges
B. Invoicing
C. Differential charging
D. Reviewing IT service quality
Answer: D
31. If a customer complains that service levels are below those agreed in the SLA,
apparently due to a number of related hardware incidents, who is responsible for
ensuring the cause is investigated?
A. The Incident Manager
B. The Capacity Manager
C. The Problem Manager
D. The Availability Manager
Answer: C
32. Which of the following statements on IT Financial Management is correct?
A. An IT Financial Manager identifies the costs incurred by IT and might propose prices
for the services supplied
B. In order to be able to set up Budgeting and Accounting, SLAs and OLAs need to have
been agreed
C. It is only possible to be cost conscious if the customer is charged for services
D. IT Financial Management must agree charges with the customer before establishing
a Cost Model
Answer: A
33. Managing service availability is now more important than ever because.....
A. The dependence of customers on their IT has grown
B. System Management tools can now provide much more real time performance
management information
C. More IT systems are now outsourced
D. More service providers now have Service Level Agreements with their customers
Answer: A
34. Which of the following can be regarded as CIs?
1. Hardware
2. Documentation
3. Staff
4. Software
5. Network components
A. 1, 4 & 5
B. 1, 2, 4 & 5
C. 1 & 4
D. All of them
Answer: D
35. Your organisation has just entered into a Gradual Recovery IT Service Continuity
agreement. Within the ITIL definition, which of the following lists is INCORRECT for what
you could find at the contingency site?
A. A building, electricity, telecommunications equipment, office space for technical staff
B. Stand-by generator, telecommunications equipment, system manuals, support staff,
water
C. A building, telecommunications equipment, a computer, support staff, documentation
D. A building, electricity, water, support staff, system manuals
Answer: C
36. A company has received messages concerning errors in the daily batch run which
handles the ordering of raw materials for the manufacturing process. This is probably
due to an incorrect change in the software. The change involved extending the "stock
number" field by two positions. This change was also introduced in a monthly program
that has not yet been run. The situation needs to be corrected very quickly to avoid
affecting manufacturing.
What is the best possible solution to be adopted by Problem Management when
handling the error?
A. The errors are reported and, because the underlying cause is known, handled by
Change Management as a Request for Change with the status of 'urgent change'
B. The errors are reported as Problems at the Service Desk and, because manufacturing
is involved, are directly introduced as Changes
C. The errors are reported as incidents to the Service Desk and after some research
they are identified as Known Errors, which can then be changed
D. The errors are reported as Incidents and a Problem is identified. After the cause of
the error has been established and a temporary workaround found, it is labeled as a
Known Error that can be corrected by raising a Request for Change
Answer: D
37. Which if the following would you NOT expect to see in an IT Service Continuity Plan?
A. Contact lists
B. The version number
C. Reference to change control procedures
D. Full Service Level Agreements
Answer: D
38. Consider the following statements:
1. Effective Change Management ensures that urgency and impact are keys to decisions
made on the scheduling of changes
2. Change Management controls all aspects of the change process
Which of these statements is true?
A. 1
B. Neither of them
C. 2
D. Both of them
Answer: D
39. Differential charging is a technique used in.................
A. FTA
B. Status Accounting
C. Demand Management
D. CRAMM
Answer: C
40. One of Release Management's tasks is to set up a DHS. Which statement most
closely describes the DHS?
A. A DHS is a number of physical locations where baselines are stored
B. Before setting up a DHS a tool should first be purchased for releasing the hardware
into the live environment
C. A DHS is an area set aside for the secure storage of definitive hardware spares
D. A DHS is a database in which all definitive hardware Configuration Items are
recorded
Answer: C
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No. 14
1. Service Desk staff need:
1. A good telephone manner
2. Some technical appreciation of the supported services
3. Awareness of the likely business impact of service incidents
A. 1 & 2
B. 1, 2 & 3
C. 2 & 3
D. 1 & 3
Answer: B
2. Which of the following can be OMITTED from an urgent software release in
exceptional circumstances?
A. Undertaking full testing
B. Updating the CMDB
C. Incrementing the version number
D. Putting the amended version in the DSL
Answer: A
3. A good Incident Management process will:
A. Ensure that error corrections are treated as urgent changes
B. Diagnose the underlying cause of incidents quickly
C. Restore normal service operation as quickly as possible following an incident
D. All of the other answers
Answer: C
4. The primary responsibility of Incident Control is:
A. Keeping customers informed of future problems
B. Matching incidents with known errors
C. Restoring service following incidents
D. Raising multiple incidents to Problem Management
Answer: C
5. Which of the following statements best describes the level to which CIs would
normally be broken down:
A. The lowest possible level
B. The level at which they will be independently installed, changed or replaced
C. The level which best facilitates the identification of the root cause of all System
incidents
D. The level at which it is possible to identify the suppliers of all subcomponents
Answer: B
6. Which of the following activities is NOT the responsibility of Problem Management?
A. Co-coordinating major problem reviews
B. Determining the root cause of incidents
C. Providing management information on incidents, problems and known errors
D. Implementing error resolutions
Answer: D
7. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Charging is required in order to cost IT services
B. Budgeting and accounting for IT services is essential for effective Service
Management
C. It is better to budget and account for IT services before implementing charging
D. Charging may lead to the recovery of costs
Answer: A
8. Which of the following is necessary in order to start IT Services Continuity Planning?
A. Include continuity measures in Change Management procedures
B. Identify appropriate countermeasures
C. Conduct a business impact analysis
D. Establish a contract with an intermediate recovery provider
Answer: C
9. Status Accounting is an important part of which process?
A. IT Financial Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D
10. Which of the following is NOT a technique usually associated with Availability
Management?
A. Auto error detection
B. Duplexing
C. Analysing data
D. Queuing theory
Answer: D
11. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Service Level Agreements are between user departments and technical support
providers and are written in business language
B. Operational Level Agreements are between internal service providers and may be
written in technical language
C. Operational Level Agreements are between Service Level Management and external
providers and are written in business language
D. Service Level Agreements are between user departments and Service Level
Management and are written in technical language
Answer: B
12. Which is the correct combination of concepts and Service Management processes?
1 Vulnerability
2 Maintainability
3 Resource
4 Impact
A Availability Management
B Capacity Management
C Problem Management
D IT Service Continuity Planning
A. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B.4-C
B. 1-B.2-A, 3-C.4-D
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
D. 1-D.2-C, 3-A.4-B
Answer: A
13. Problem Management includes several core activities. Which one of the following
most accurately summarises these?
A. Problem control, error control, management reporting
B. Identification, control, status accounting, verification
C. Incident control, severity analysis, support allocation, reporting
D. Identification, severity analysis, support allocation, investigation
Answer: A
14. The Service Desk is unable to deal with a customer's enquiry. What action should
they take?
A. Log the details and inform the customer of the incident number. Tell them someone
will contact them within an agreed time with an update. Retain ownership of the incident
but refer to appropriate second line support group. Monitor progress and keep customer
informed
B. Tell them to ring back if it happens again
C. Log the details and inform the customer of the incident number. Suggest they ring
back if they have not heard within 48 hrs
D. Suggest the customer contacts a third party
Answer: A
15. When writing an IT Service Continuity Plan it is essential to prepare for a return to
normal working. Which of these is it essential to include in the section of the plan that
deals with the return to normal working?
A. Removal of data from standby equipment
B. A list of contacts for the emergency suppliers
C. Bonus payments for staff involved in the disaster
D. Creation of an updated version of the IT Service Continuity Plan
Answer: A
16. Which of the following best describes why an SLA should contain definitions of
terms?
A. To ensure that anywhere there is a measurement required within the SLA then it is
realistically measurable
B. To ensure that both the customer and IT can unambiguously understand the terms in
the SLA
C. To make sure that all clauses in the SLA make sense
D. To ensure that the customer's understanding of a particular term is the one meant in
the SLA
Answer: B
17. Which of the following would NOT normally be discussed in a typical service review
with a customer?
A. Authorisation for changes to the service
B. Service performance trends
C. Corrective actions to be taken
D. Customer satisfaction with the service
Answer: A
18. Which of the following will NOT be provided by a good Service Desk?
A. Reduced requirement for IT knowledge throughout the user community
B. Effective correction of the root cause of incidents
C. Early warning of potential business IT operational failures
D. Keeping customer's informed
Answer: B
19. Which of the following IT Service Continuity measures is likely to be the most
appropriate for 24x7 business critical system running on a mainframe?
A. Cold standby facility to be located in the car park
B. Reciprocal arrangement with a local company
C. Hot standby at a site some distance away
D. Dormant contract with a mainframe supplier
Answer: C
20. Impact assessment is NOT normally part of which of the following processes?
A. Problem Management
B. IT Service Continuity Planning
C. Incident Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: D
21. An overhead would normally be regarded as which of the following?
A. An indirect cost
B. A discounted charge
C. A direct cost
D. The market price
Answer: A
22. Consider these statements:
1. Service Capacity Management should ensure that the type, pattern and typical
resource requirements of all services is understood
2. Undertaking Service Capacity Management is sufficient to ensure that the
performance difficulties never arise Which of these statements is/are correct?
A. Neither
B. Both
C. Only 2
D. Only 1
Answer: D
23. A properly implemented and tested IT Service Continuity Plan can help business
continuity by:
A. Planning the implementation of new services at times that don't impact the business
B. Enabling a speedy recovery of service after a disaster
C. Reviewing trends in incidents and planning to avoid repetition
D. Having planned maintenance tasks that reduce the likelihood of incidents
Answer: B
24. From a well-informed User's perspective, which of the following is a likely sequence
in the management of a service failure?
A. Incident Management, Change Management, Release Management, Problem
Management
B. Incident Management, Problem Management, Release Management, Change
Management
C. Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Management, Release
Management
D. Change Management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Release
Management
Answer: C
25. The Change Management function is NOT responsible for:
A. Scheduling a change to the network
B. Ensuring that a change to an application is prioritised
C. Ensuring that the impact of a change to hardware is fully assessed
D. Implementing the release of a software change
Answer: D
26. Which of the following need NOT be recorded as part of a Change Record?
A. The scheduled implementation date
B. Some details of the back-out plan
C. Any CAB recommendations
D. The names of the CAB members
Answer: D
27. Consider the following:
1. Details of a Cl must be entered into the CMDB after it is added to the live environment
2. A Cl consists of a number of component CIs
Which of the above statements is true in all cases?
A. Both 1 & 2
B. Neither
C. Only 1
D. Only 2
Answer: B
28. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management
process?
A. Distributing software
B. The physical aspects of software control
C. Helping to determine the software release policy
D. Ensuring that CMDB entries concerning software CIs are verified
Answer: D
29. Which is the correct sequence of events for describing an incident lifecycle after the
incident has occurred?
A. Detection, Repair, Recovery, Restoration, Diagnosis
B. Detection, Recovery, Repair, Restoration, Diagnosis
C. Detection, Diagnosis, Recovery, Repair, Restoration
D. Detection, Diagnosis, Repair, Recovery, Restoration
Answer: D
30. Which of the following statements best describes a 'problem'?
A. An incident which has been diagnosed and for which a resolution exists
B. An incident that has passed its service level for fixing
C. An incident that has occurred more than once
D. The unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents
Answer: D
31. By introducing budgeting and accounting for IT services, which of the following will
be a DIRECT benefit?
A. Better value for money
B. Clearer charging policies
C. Improved financial forecasting
D. Higher quality support
Answer: C
32. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Physical copies of all CIs are stored in the DSL
B. The DSL contains source code only
C. Release Management is responsible for managing the organisation's rights and
obligations regarding software
D. A change may only be developed from non-definitive version of software in the case
of an urgent release
Answer: C
33. In which of the following circumstances is requesting an urgent change justified?
A. Only one small component requires changing and it is unlikely to affect any other
components
8. The CAB meeting has been cancelled because most of the members are unavailable
at the time previously agreed
C. The supplier has advised that previous versions will not be supported very much
longer
D. The change is needed to correct an error on a business critical system
Answer: D
34. The prime responsibility of Availability Management is:
A. To understand the behaviour of CIs
B. To deliver a level of availability that enables customers to satisfy their business
objectives
C. To negotiate and manage support contracts for hardware and software
D. To manage security and serviceability of all IT services
Answer: B
35. Which of the following is NOT a valid charging policy?
A. Cost recovery
B. Activity base costing
C. 'Cost plus' pricing
D. Market rate
Answer: B
36. Which of the following are likely members of the Change Advisory Board?
A. Problem Manager
B. Change Manager
C. All of them
D. Customer representatives
Answer: C
37. Which of these is NOT a purpose for which Service Capacity Management
information can be used?
A. DSL control
B. Systems throughput calculation
C. Network performance analysis
D. Demand Management
Answer: A
38. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a hardware Cl?
A. Number of items
B. What it costs
C. A supplier's part number
D. A manufacturer's serial number
Answer: A
39. Which of the following list will NOT have a direct impact upon IT capacity?
A. An increase in network bandwidth available
B. A reduction in transactions processed
C. A reduction in the number of files to be stored
D. An increase in the cost per transaction
Answer: D
40. Which of the following is most involved with the: Incident - Problem - Known Error -
Change lifecycle?
A. Service Support
B. Service Management
C. Service Delivery
D. Customers Services
Answer: A
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No. 15
1. In which of the following circumstances is requesting an urgent change
justified.
A. Only one small component requires changing and it is unlikely to affect any
other components.
B. The CAB meeting has been cancelled because most of the members are
unavailable at the time previously agreed.
C. The supplier has advised that previous versions will not be supported very
much longer.
D. The change is needed to correct an error on a business critical system.
Answer: D
2. Within an ITIL compliant Change Management process, who decides on the
categorization of a proposed change?
A. Change Manager.
B. Change Advisory Board.
C. Change Requestor
D. Change Implementer
Answer: A
3. Consider the following statements:
1. Effective Change Management ensures that urgency and impact are keys to
decisions made on the scheduling of changes.
2. Change Management controls all aspects of the change process.
Which of these statements are true?
A. Only 1
B. Neither
C. Only 2
D. Both
Answer: D
4. Consider the following periodic metrics:
1. Number of changes implemented during the period in total and by CI..
2. Number of changes backed out, by reason
3. Number of known errors cleared.
4. Number of change management staff training records complete and up to
date.
Which of these are collected and monitored by Change management.
A 1, 2 and 3.
B 2, 3 and 4.
C. 1, 2 and 4.
D. All of them
Answer: C
5. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management
process?
A. Distributing Software.
B. The physical aspects of software control.
C. Helping to determine the software release policy.
D. Ensuring that CMDB entries concerning software CI’s are verified.
Answer: D
6. The primary responsibility of Incident Control is:
A. Keeping customers informed of future problems.
B. Matching Incidents with known errors.
C. Restoring service following incidents.
D. Raising multiple incidents to problem management.
Answer: C
7. The percentage of service requests closed without requiring further action is
an effectiveness measure of:
A. Availability Management
B. Problem Management
C. Service Desk
D. Service Level Management
Answer: C
8. Status Accounting is an important part of which process?
A. IT Financial Management.
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D
9. Which of the following need NOT be recorded as part of a Change Record?
A. The scheduled implementation date
B. Some details of the back-out-plan.
C. Any CAB recommendations..
D. The names of the CAB members.
Answer: D
10. Under an ITIL Change Management process, once a change has been built,
who should undertake testing?
A. The Change builder.
B. The Change Manager.
C. The Change advisory board
D An independent Tester.
Answer: D
11. How frequent should CAB/EC meetings be held?
A. Daily
B. Monthly
C. Weekly
D. As required
Answer: D
12. The sequence of dealing with problems must be based on...
A. The category to which the problem belongs.
B. The impact of the problem.
C. The priority of the problem.
Answer: C
13. A new networked computer is installed to replace an existing PC. The old PC
is installed as a print server for the local area network.
Which process is responsible for registering this modification in the Configuration
Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management
Answer: A
14. A computer operator establishes that a memory disk is in danger of becoming
completely full. He reports this to...
A. Capacity Management.
B. Change Management.
C. Planning & Control for IT Services
D. Service Level Management.
Answer: B
15. Because of its increased dependency on information systems, a large
financial institution decides that there must be plans for the provision of IT
services following a major interruption to the service. Which process, therefore,
should be implemented?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Service Management
Answer: D
16. A printer in a department of an insurance office has broken down. Hardware
Support wants to approach the supplier of the printer to remedy the defect.
Hardware Support can obtain data from Configuration Management about which
of the following:
1. The location of the printer
2. The type of maintenance contract
3. The number of disruptions the printer has experienced in the last six months
Which of the above is correct:
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. 1,2, and 3
Answer: D
17. What information does the Service Desk provide to the IT management of an
organisation?
A. All deviations from the specified service levels
B. The growth of the IT infrastructure
C. The time spent on investigation and diagnosis for each department
D. The number of incidents per category
Answer: D
18. Which is the correct combination of concepts and ITIL processes?
1. CMDB
2. DSL
3. MTBF
4. SLA
a. Availability Management
b. Configuration Management
c. Service Level Management
d. Release Management
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
B. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a,4-c
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
D. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
Answer: B
19. Which of these tasks is a task of Problem Management?
A. Co-ordination of all changes to the IT infrastructure.
B. Classification of Requests for Change (RFCs).
C. Approval of all changes / modifications made to the Known-Error database.
D. Recognising user's requirements and subsequently implementing changes to
the IT infrastructure.
Answer: C
20. Which of the following activities does the Service Desk undertake?
A. Error Control, Recording Incidents, Status Accounting
B. Impact determination, Problem Management, Verification
C. Incident Management, Providing Management Information, Recording CIs
D. Incident Management, Providing Management Information, Recording
Incidents
Answer: D
21. Which of the following justifications could be considered a valid reason for a
business not having any continuity plans for a specific IT Service ?
A. The IT Department does not have the skills for developing Continuity plans
B. The IT Department has decided that the risk of disaster is very small
C. The Business does not time to be involved in Continuity plans
D. A management decision has been made following a business impact
assessment
Answer: D
22. What is the correct order for the following in the security lifecycle ?
A. Prevention, Detection, Reduction, Repression, Correction, Evaluation
B. Prevention, Reduction, Detection, Repression, Correction, Evaluation
C. Evaluation, Correction, Prevention, Reduction, Detection, Repression
D. Detection, Repression, Correction, Prevention, Reduction, Evaluation
Answer: B
23. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the IT Service Continuity
planning team ?
A. Outlining possible measures to protect an IT Service
B. Deciding the business criticality of an IT Service
C. Testing the plans for the recovery of an IT Service
D. Identifying the risks to an IT Service
Answer: B
24. Consider the following statements about IT Service Continuity planning :
1. The intermediary recovery external option offers a remote installation, fully
equipped with all the required hardware, software, communications and
environmental control equipment.
2. The Intermediate recovery external option is often shared between multiple
customers and in the event of a disaster may not be available due to oversubscription.
Which of these statements would be correct ?
A. Both
B. Neither
C. Only statement 1
D. Only statement 2
Answer: A
25. Security Management has two key objectives which are best described as :
1. To define the security requirements in an SLA
2. To develop a security recovery plan
3. To provide a basic level of security to the organization
4. To ensure compliance with the security management code of practice
5. To meet SLA and legislative security requirements
Answer: A
26. Your Organisation has just entered into a Gradual Recovery IT Service
Continuity agreement. Within the ITIL definition, which of the following lists is
INCORRECT for what you could find at the contingency site ?
A. A building, electricity, telecommunications equipment, office space for
technical staff
B. Stand by generator, telecommunications equipment, system manuals, support
staff, water.
C. A building, telecommunications equipment, a computer, support staff,
documentation.
D. A building, electricity, water, support staff, system manuals.
Answer: C
27. Which of the following would you not expect to see in an IT Service
Continuity plan ?
A. Contact lists
B. The version number
C. Reference to Change Control
D. Service Level Agreements
Answer: D
28. When writing an IT Service Continuity plan it is essential to prepare for a
return to normal working. Which of these is it essential to include in the section of
the plan that deals with the return to normal working ?
A. Removal of data from standby equipment
B. A list of contacts for the emergency suppliers
C. Bonus payments for staff involved in the disaster
D. Creation of an updated version of the IT Service Continuity plan
Answer: A
29. Which of the following IT Service Continuity measures is likely to be the most
appropriate for 24 X 7 business critical system running on a mainframe.
A. Cold standby facility to be located in the car park
B. Reciprocal arrangement with a local company
C. Hot standby at a site some distance away
D. Dormant contract with a mainframe supplier
Answer: C
30. Responsibility for determining the required level of CIA for a configuration
item belongs to :
A. Configuration Manager
B. Customer
C. Availability Manager
D. Security manager
Answer: B
31. Which of the following statements is NOT correct ?
A. Problem management may be involved when a major incident occurs
B. The Service desk monitors problems throughout their lifecycles
C. Problem management is responsible for managing the resolution of problems
D. Problem management is responsible for Error control
Answer: B
32. For which of the following activities is the Service desk Not responsible :
A. Impact Analysis
B. Root cause identification
C. Categorisation and Prioritisation
D. Escalation
Answer: B
33. Which one of these is NOT part of Capacity management /
A. Demand Management
B. Maintainability
C. Tuning
D. Application Sizing
Answer: B
34. Following the release of a software upgrade to fix a known error, which
process is responsible for ensuring that the CMDB has been updated correctly?
A. Problem Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Change Management
D. Release Management
Answer: B
35. Which of these instances would be valid reasons for the Service Desk to
invoke escalation procedures?
1. An incident exceeds the downtime stipulated within a SLA
2. The business impact of an incident increases due to unforeseen
circumstances
3. The number of users impacted by an incident is greater than first thought
4. A senior manager in the customer’s organisation complains about the lack of
progress being made on a particular incident
a. 2, 3 & 4
b. 1, 2 & 3
c. All four
d. 1, 3 & 4
Answer: C
36. A customer has requested a review of charges for services provided under
an SLA. Within the SLA there is provision for this. Who will review the charges
with the customer?
A. The IT Finance Manager
B. The Change Manager
C. The Configuration Manager
D. The Service Level Manager
Answer: D
37. Which of the following is the last activity in the Problem Management
process?
A. Log the problem
B. Initiating a review of the problem and its impact
C. The referral of any associated RFCs to Change Management
D. Closing the Problem Record, having completed all Problem Management
activities
Answer: D
38. When establishing a new SLA which of the following should the Service Level
Manager take into account?
1) That the new SLA can meet the targets agreed with the customer
2) That the conditions in other existing SLAs can continue to be met
3) That the possible impact of changes to the SLA can be identified
Of the above, which are true?
a. 1 & 3
b. 2 & 3
c. 1 & 2
d. 1, 2 & 3
Answer: A
39. Under an ITIL Change Management process, once a change has been built,
who should undertake testing?
A. The change builder
B. The Change Manager
C. An independent tester
D. The Change Advisory Board
Answer: C
40. An organisation starts to use Intranet and e-mail. As many ‘images’ are sent
back and forth over the network, its capacity needs expanding.
Which process is suitable for approving this capacity expansion?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Network Management
D. Problem Management
Answer: B
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No. 16
1. The successful Diagnosis of a problem results in a known error, on the basis
of this known error a RFC may be raised. The known error record may be closed
when…..
A. A review of the change has led to a satisfactory result
B. The proposal for change has been lodged with Change management
C. The request for change has been fully authorised by the CAB
D. Incidents related to the known error do not happen any more
Answer : A
2. A known error occurs when ….
A. When an error has occurred several times and has been passed to Problem
management
B. An error occurs that has not been diagnosed and for which a circumvention
does not yet exist
C. A problem has been diagnosed and a solution or circumvention exists
D. The resolution of a problem has been implemented
Answer : C
3. Following the release of a software upgrade to fix a known error , which area is
responsible for ensuring that the CMDB is updated?
A. Change management
B. Problem management
C. Configuration management
D. Release management
Answer : C
4. A Configuration Management database can contain many configuration items
( CIs) Which of the items below would NOT be considered to be a CI ?
A. A user name
B. A Video monitor
C. A bought in software package
D. A procedure
Answer : A
5. A delivery of PCs has been received. The status of the PCs has been changed
from Ordered to In stock. Which process is responsible for recording this status
change ?
A. Financial Management for IT Services
B. Problem Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Change Management
Answer : C
6. When can the Building, Testing & implementation of a change begin ?
A. If it is urgent , as soon as the request for change has been classified
B. As soon as there is a back-out plan for the change
C. As soon as the Impact Analysis has been discussed and agreed by the CAB
D. As soon as the RFC has been formally authorised
Answer : D
7. In which cases must Change review take place after implementation of a
change ?
A. If another incident of the same type occurs
B. Always
C. At the request of the person who submitted the change request
D. Randomly
Answer : B
8. Which of the following is not part of the Release process ?
A. Moving software from the DSL to the development environment
B. Moving software from the DSL to the live environment
C. Moving software from the DSL to the test environment
D. Moving software from the live environment to the DSL
Answer : D
9. The Words Delta, Full and Package describe different types of release. Which
one of the following statements is true ?
A. A package release always contains software and hardware
B. Urgent changes are always Delta releases
C. A Delta release is only ever part of a package release
D. A Full release releases the normal release unit into the live environment
Answer : D
10. Release management staff do not carry out ;
A. The planning of rollouts of hardware and software
B. The distribution of software applications to remote locations
C. The testing of software to eradicate errors
D. The release and implementation of software into the live environment
Answer : C
11. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of Problem Management ?
A. Ownership of an incident through it’s lifecycle
B. Investigations and diagnosis
C. Raising requests for change
D. Maintenance of a known error database
Answer : A
12. A company has received messages concerning errors in the daily batch run
which handles the ordering of raw materials for the manufacturing process. This
is probably due to an incorrect change in the software. The changes involved
extending the “stock number “ field by two positions. This change was also
introduced in a monthly program that has not yet been run. The situation needs
to be corrected very quickly to avoid affecting manufacturing. What is the best
possible to be adopted by Problem management when handling this error ?
A. The errors are reported and because the underlying cause is known, handled
by change management as a request for change with the status of urgent
change
B. The errors are reported as problems at the Service desk and because the
manufacturing process is involved, are directly introduced as changes
C. The errors are reported as incidents to the Service desk and after some
research they are identified as Known errors, which can then be changed
D. The errors are reported as incidents and a problem is identified. After the
cause of the error has been established and a temporary workaround found, it is
labeled a known error that can be corrected by raising a Request for change
Answer : D
13. Customers find that during testing the response times do not meet the times
specified in the Service level requirement. Nevertheless they decide to introduce
the new application. Who is responsible for seeking the underlying cause of this
issue after “go-live”?
A. Availability management
B. Application development
C. Problem Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer : C
14. Which is the correct sequence of events for describing and incident lifecycle
after the incident has occurred?
A. Detection, Repair, Recovery, Restoration, Diagnosis
B. Detection, Recovery, Repair, Restoration, Diagnosis
C. Detection, Diagnosis, Recovery, Repair, Restoration
D. Detection, Diagnosis, Repair, Recovery, Restoration
Answer : A
15. Which of the following describes the normal sequence of events for fault
resolution;
A. Problem, Incident, Change, Known error
B. Incident, Problem, Change, Known error
C. Incident, Problem, Known error, Change
D. Problem, Incident, Known error, Change
Answer : C
16. Which of the following will not be provided by an ITIL based Service desk
A. Reduced requirement for IT knowledge throughout the user community
B. Effective correction of the root-cause of incidents
C. Early warning of potential business IT operational failures
D. Keeping customer’s informed
Answer : B
17. Which incidents should be reported to the Service desk ?
A. Only incidents resolved at logging
B. Only incidents from Bona fide customers
C. All incidents except simple enquiries
D. All incidents
Answer : D
18. The Service desk has a number of core activities, Which of the lists below
most closely represents these activities ;
A. Incident management, direct user support, problem identification, delivery of
management information
B. Incident management, informing users, direct user support, delivery of
management information
C. Incident registration, to give support and classify, to escalate incidents to
research and diagnose, to solve and repair
D. Incident registration, to give support and classify, research and diagnose, to
solve and repair
Answer : B
19. In which one of the following circumstances is an emergency change
warranted ?
A. Only one small component requires changing and is unlikely to affect any
other components
B. The CAB meeting has been cancelled because most of the members are
unavailable at the time previously agreed
C. The supplier has advised that previous versions will not be supported for very
much longer
D. The change is needed to correct an error on a business critical system
Answer : D
20. Within an ITIL compliant Change Management process, who decides on the
categorization of a proposed change?
A. Change Manager
B. The CAB
C. The Change requestor
D. Change implementer
Answer : A
21. Consider the following period metrics :
1. Number of changes implemented during the period, in total and by CI
2. Number of changes blocked out, by reason
3. Number of known errors cleared
4. Number of change management staff training records complete and up to date
Which of these metrics would be collected and monitored by Change
management ?
A. 1,2 & 3
B. 2,3 &4
C. 1,2 & 4
D. All of them
Answer: D
22. Which of the following is not a responsibility of Release Management ?
A. Distributing software
B. The physical aspects of software control
C. Helping determine the software release policy
D. Ensuring that the CMDB entries concerning software CIs are verified
Answer: D
23. One of Release managements tasks is to set up a DHS. Which statement
most closely describes the DHS ?
A. The DHS is a number of physical locations where baselines are stored
B. The DHS is a tool for releasing hardware into the live environment
C. A DHS is an area set aside for the storage of definitive hardware spares
D. A DHS is a Database in which all definitive hardware Configuration Items are
recorded
Answer: C
24. Problem Management includes several core activities. Which ones from the
list below most accurately reflect these activities;
A. Problem control, error control, management reporting
B. Identification, control, status accounting, verification
C. Incident Control, severity analysis, support allocation, reporting
D. Identification, severity analysis, support allocation, investigation
Answer: A
25. Which one of the following activities is not the responsibility of Problem
Management ?
A. Known Error management
B. Managing third party relationships
C. Always taking control of difficult incidents
D. Working with Availability Management to ensure agreed levels of service
availability
Answer: C
26. Which of the tasks below are regarded as Proactive ?
1. Control of Known errors
2. Reviewing Incident and Problem analysis reports to identify trends
3. Preventing problems in one service replicating in another
4. Identifying the root cause of incidents
A. 1&4
B. 1,2&3
C. 2&3
D. 1&3
Answer: C
27. The Primary responsibility of Incident Control is :
A. Keeping customers informed of future problems
B. Matching Incidents with Known errors
C. Restoring service following incidents
D. Raising multiple incidents with Problem management
Answer: C
28. Consider the following Metrics :
1. Number of incidents closed without onward referral
2. Number of incidents correctly diagnosed when logged
3. Number of Hardware faults reported
Which of the above are valid performance indicators for the Service desk
A. All of them
B. 1&2
C. 1&3
D. 2&A
Answer: B
29. The percentage of Service Desk requests closed is an effective
measurement of the ;
A. Availability management
B. Problem Management
C. Service Desk
D. Service Level management
Answer: C
30. Status Accounting is an important part of which process ?
A. Financial Management for IT Services
B. Change management
C. Incident management
D. Configuration management
Answer: D
31. Consider the following information :
1. Type identify
2. Unique identifier
3. Version number
4. Copy number
Which of the above details should be recorded for every CI recorded within the
CMDB
A. 1&2
B. 1,3&4
C. All of them
D. 3&4
Answer: A
32. What is the main difference between the CMDB and a typical Asset register
A. A CMDB is a computerized system – most Asset registers are not
B. There isn’t any difference
C. More than just hardware is recorded in the CMDB
D. A CMDB is a Database that links its contents together
Answer: D
33. Which of the following does not need to be recorded as part of the Change
record :
A. The scheduled Implementation date
B. Details of the backout plan
C. Any CAB recommendations
D. CAB member names
Answer : D
34. Which of the following statements are true :
The CAB should ensure that the proposed changes are assessed for
1. The possible Impact on IT Service Continuity recovery plans
2. The effect of not implementing the change
3. The resources required to implement the change
4. The likely impact on Capacity and performance
A. 1,2&3
B. All of them
C. 2,3&4
D. 1,2&4
Answer: B
35. Which of the following is the correct sequence in the management of a
Service failure ?
A. Incident management, Change management, Release management, Problem
management
B. Incident management, Problem management, Release management, Change
management,
C. Incident management, Problem management, Change management, Release
management
D. Change management, Incident management, Problem management, Release
management
Answer: C
36. Which of the following statements best describes the DSL ( Definitive
Software library )
A. A secure software library containing all versions of software CI’s in their
definitive controlled form
B. A logical library held securely on computer, containing all versions of software
CI’s
C. A secure physical library, containing the latest version of every software CI in
a quality controlled manner
D. A logical library held securely on computer, containing the latest version of
every software CI
Answer: A
37. Salesmen are able to use their laptops externally to obtain info on travel
routes & times. They notice however that when a certain type of modem is
installed the communication was unsatisfactory. Apart from Incident management
which processes would be involved in finding a long term structural solution?
A. Change, Configuration, Release & Problem management
B. Only Configuration, Problem & Release management
C. Only Change & Release management
D. Only Change, Release & Configuration management
Answer: A
38. A customer rings the Service Desk to report that the expected output has not
appeared on the monitor. When is the priority of this incident decided for the first
time?
A When the Service Desk logs the incident
B When the solution is known and can be implemented
C When the reason why the output has not appeared is investigated
D When the user is contacted for the second time
Answer: A
39. Security is one of the significant elements of
A. Capacity Management.
B. Availability Management.
C. Resource Management.
D. Service Level Management.
Answer: B
40. At the Politically Correct company the cause of repetitive software failure has
been found after intensive research. The supplier is working on a “fix” (a piece of
software that will eliminate the problem).
The user observes the same failure again and reports this to the Service Desk.
The Service Desk has already been informed about the situation by Problem
Management.
Must the service desk register this as an incident?
A. yes, all reports must be registered as an incident
B. yes, the user may have diagnosed the situation wrongly
C. no, as a known error has been identified
D. no, the problem is known and doesn’t have to be investigated
Answer: A
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No. 17
1. What does CMDB stand for & what is it used for ?
A. Configuration Maintenance Database, used for recording all maintenance on
Configuration Items and their relationships to other items.
B. Continuity Management Database, used to record all details pertaining to IT
Service Continuity Management
C. Configuration Management Database, used to record all information relating to
Configuration Items and their relationships to other items.
D. Continuity Maintenance Database, used to record all information relating to IT
Service Continuity Maintenance, including preventative maintenance.
Answer: C
2. Some of the key benefits of providing a well established Service Desk
include:
1. Improved Customer Satisfaction
2. Less likelihood of changes failing
3. The provision of more accurate information for Management
4. A single point of contact for customers
5. More efficient usage of support resources
A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 1, 3, 4 & 5
C. 1, 4 & 5
D. All are benefits a Service Desk will provide
E. None are benefits that a Service Desk will provide
Answer: B
3. True or False: Infrastructure Monitoring will provide support teams with
alerts directly allowing for faster resolution. Such alerts do not need to be
recorded in the Incident Management tool as there is little added value in this.
Typically the incident will be resolved automatically before the customer
recognises it.
A. True
B. False
Answer: False
4. Of the below statements which is the best definition of Service Management
A. Managing service & support to ensure customer expectations are managed and
met or exceeded.
B. Creation of best practice processes that are repeatable and ensure all staff have
a common understanding of terms to be used.
C. Proper use of People, Process and Technology ensuring that IT Service Delivery
fulfils business requirements in an efficient and effective manner.
Answer: C
5. In terms of Geography, what are the 3 classifications of Service Desk type ?
A. Localised, Centralised, Outsourced
B. Centralised, Outsourced, Expert
C. Localised, Centralised, Expert
D. Localised, Centralised, Virtual
Answer: D
6. With regard to the relationship between the Incident Management process & the
Problem Management process, validate the below statement.
"A Problem can exist without a corresponding Incident"
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
7. Error Control is a responsibility of what Service Management discipline ?
A. Incident Management
B. Problem Management??
C. Configuration Management
D. Release Management
E. Change Management
Answer: B
8. Security Management evolved from which of the following processes ?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Availability Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Configuration Management
Answer: B
9. True or False: Information about Software in use at your organisation does not
need to be stored in the CMDB if you have a DSL set-up. The DSL will serve as the
repository for all software details.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
10. In general a process consists of Inputs, Process Steps (enabled by resources
and controlled by some process controls) and Outputs.
A. I agree with this statement
B. I disagree with this statement
Answer: A
11. An RFC is an output of which process ?
A. Incident Management
B. Problem Management
C. Change Management
D. Configuration Management
Answer: B
12.Financial Management for IT Services outlines which of the following major cost
types ?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Accommodation
D. People
E. External Service
Answer: All of them
13. You have just been employed as the Service Desk Manager within a medium
sized organisation. One of your first tasks is to implement a formal Service Desk
which will act as a single point of contact for the user community. When staffing the
Service Desk you should employ only those individuals who demonstrate a very
good level of technical expertise. While Customer Service skills (Soft Skills) are
good they are not so important because these can be learned on the job.
A. I agree with this statement if we are setting up a Expert Level Service Desk
B. I agree with this statement if we are setting up a Virtual Service Desk
C. I agree with this statement if we are setting up a Centralised Service Desk
D. I disagree with this statement
Answer: D
14. An Operational Level Agreement is best defined as:
A. An agreement between internal support groups that ensures the SLA targets
between the Customer and the provider can be realised in practice.
B. An agreement between the Customer & Operations department documenting the
Service Levels requested
C. An agreement held between an organisation and an external organisation
facilitating the SLA held internally.
D. An agreement between the Customer & Provider outlining the Service Levels
agreed upon for a particular Service.
Answer: A
15. Known Error records are stored where:
A. Problem Management System
B. Incident Management System
C. Configuration Management Database
D. Change Management System
Answer: C
16. If the objectives associated with an organisations _________________ are not
achieved, the organisation will fail.
A. strategic vision
B. tactical mission
C. critical success factors
D. asset management
Answer: C
17. Only the Configuration Manager should update the CMDB when any changes
are made to CI's.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
18. ITIL define 3 different types of Release. These include:
A. Complete, Medium, Small
B. Package, Medium, Full
C. Medium, Package, Complete
D. Delta, Full, Package
Answer: D
19. What is the difference between a Release Plan & a Roll Out plan? Choose the
best answer.
A. A Release Plan details the physical distribution and deployment of the
Release into the Live Environment where as the Roll Out plan details the
resources & responsibilities involved in a Release as well as the scheduling of
that Release.
B. A Roll Out Plan details the physical distribution and deployment of the
Release into the Live Environment where as the Release plan details the
resources & responsibilities involved in a Release as well as the scheduling of
that Release.
C. A Release Plan details the coordinated steps to be followed on the go-live
day to implement the release into production, where as the Roll Out Plan
details the dates that all releases will be rolled out into production.
Answer: B
20. As the new Change Manager you are creating a Campaign Awareness
presentation for the Change Management process to increase the "buy-in" of the
Support Staff. One of the first items to outline is the Goal of Change Management.
What is the best statement concerning this ?
A. The Goal of Change Management is to reduce the cost of introducing new
systems into the organisation.
B. The Goal of the Change Management process is to ensure that standardised
methods & procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
C. The Goal of Change Management is to provide a forum for people to discuss the
requested RFC and then implement the Changes.
Answer: B
21. Your colleague is a Service Desk Manager in a fairly large organisation. He has
asked you to assist him in documenting the goal of the Incident Management
Process. Chose the best statement.
A. The primary goal of the Incident Management process is to restore normal
service as quickly as possible following loss of service.
B. The primary goal of the Incident Management process is to minimize the adverse
impact of Incidents and Problems on the business that are caused by errors
within the IT Infrastructure
C. The primary goal of the Incident Management process is to ensure that
standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling
of all Incidents
Answer : A
22. With regards to Quality, what are the 4 steps of a Continuous Improvement
Quality Life Cycle. Hint: This method was devised by Walter Shewhart & his
assistant W. Edwards Deming. ( Hint = Deming Circle )
A. DO, ACT, PLAN, CHECK
B. PLAN, CHECK, ACT, DO
C. PLAN, DO, MANAGE, CHECK
D. CHECK, PLAN, ACT, DO
E. PLAN, DO, CHECK , ACT
Answer : E
23. Costs which are apportioned across all or a number of Customer groups are
known as:
A. Direct Costs
B. Variable Costs
C. Fixed Costs
D. Indirect Costs
Answer: D
24. Budget, Charging & IT Accounting are all processes associated with which IT
Service Management discipline ?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. Capacity Management
Answer: C
25. Which IT Service Management function is responsible for generating and
maintaining the organisations / departments Charging Policies ?
A. IT Service Continuity Manager
B. Change Manager
C. Release Manager
D. Service Level Manager
E. Financial Manager for IT Services
Answer: D
26. Which of the following IT Service disciplines does IT Service Continuity
Management (ITSCM) interact with ? (Chose the 3 most appropriate disciplines)
A. Release Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Financial Management for IT Services
E. Configuration Management
Answer: B,C& E
27. Acting as the IT Manager within an SME, you have recognised a need to improve
your IT Recovery options. You approach another company you know to have the same
technologies as you, and agree on an agreement to host each others services in the
event of a disaster. What is the name given to this form of IT Recovery Option ?
A. Gradual Recovery
B. Manual Work-a-rounds
C. Intermediate Recovery
D. Reciprocal Arrangements
Answer: D
28. The name given to the document which outlines the responsibilities between internal
functional areas with respect to assisting in the provision of an IT Service to the
Customer/s is ?
A. Service Level Agreement
B. Operational Level Agreement
C. Service Level Requirements
D. Underpinning Contract
Answer: B
29. Which of the following is not an activity of Capacity Management ?
A. Modelling
B. Component Failure Impact Analysis
C. Demand Management
D. Application Sizing
Answer: B
30. A colleague from the HR Department calls you to ask the Service Hours &
Maintenance Slots for your ERP Solution. In which document would you most likely find
this information ?
A. Service Level Requirements
B. Release Policy
C. Service Level Agreement
D. Weekly Incident Reports
Answer: C
31. Service Desk staff should demonstrate which of the following characteristics:
A. Good Telephone manner
B. Complaint Management
C. Active Listener & Quick Learner
D. Good enquiry skills
E. Good Communication skills
Answer: A, B, C, D & E
32. True or False: Availability Management is responsible for the resumption of
business processing after a major disaster.
1. True
2. False
Answer: 2
33. Your company has implemented IT Service Management exactly how ITIL best
practice guidelines advise. Are your IT Service Management processes now ITIL
Compliant ?
A. Yes the IT Service Management Processes are now ITIL Compliant
B. No the IT Service Management Processes are not ITIL Compliant
C. We could assume that the Service Management Processes are ITIL
Compliant provided they are adopted by all.
Answer: B – BS1500 is the compliancy standard
34. Match the following ITIL modules with the relevant description.
MODULES:
1) Service Delivery
2) Service Support
3) The Business Perspective
4) ICT Infrastructure Management
5) Security Management
DESCRIPTIONS:
a) Covers all aspects of Infrastructure Management from identification of the business
requirements through to ongoing operation of IT services
b) Outlines the processes associated with the day to day support & maintenance
activities for the provision of IT Services
c) Outlines the processes required for the planning & delivery of quality IT Services
d) Outlines the processes of planning & managing a defined level of security for IT
Services
e) Provides guidance to help IT personnel to understand how they can contribute to the
business objectives
A. 1a,2b,3e,4d,5c
B. 1b,2c,3e,4d,5a
C. 1c,2b,3e,4d,5a
D. 1c,2b,3e,4a,5d
Answer: C
35. Which of the following are Outputs of the Capacity Management processes ?
(Select 3)
A. CDB
B. Proactive Changes
C. Capacity Plan
D. Business Plans & strategy
E. Operational Schedules
Answer: A, B & C
36. With regard to Configuration Management, what is a variant ?
A. A CI that has the same basic functionality as another CI but is slightly different in
some small manner (e.g.. Additional CPU)
B. A CI that specifically refers to a software version.
C. A CI that specifically refers to a hardware specification.
D. A CI that has the same name as another CI but shares no technical relationship.
Answer: A
37. Consider the following :
A. Objectively assess the effectiveness of your Service Management processes
B. Identify constraints and problem areas
C. Provide you with advice on how to manage your processes more effectively
D. Provide you with advice on how to improve your processes
Which method is being described?
1. Problem Management
2. Health check
3. Capacity Management
Answer: 2
38. Error Control is carried out by which ITIL discipline ?
A. Incident Management
B. Change Management
C. Problem Management
D. Configuration Management
E. Capacity Management
Answer: C
39. You are a Change Manager for a large company. On Friday evening Problem
Management submit an urgent RFC. There's been a failure within the infrastructure of
the production CRM System and a Change is required urgently to resume the Service.
As time is very limited which of the following Change activities might you for go.
A. Build
B. Authorisation
C. Testing
D. Review
Answer: C
40. Service Support & Service Delivery are 2 of the 5 core books within ITIL. Which 3 of
the following titles complete the core group ?
A. The Business Perspective
B. Application Management
C. Planning to Implement Security Management
D. Service Management
E. ICT Infrastructure Management
Answer: A,B,E
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No. 18
1. True or False: All Changes should by entered into the CMDB ?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
2. Some well known methods of Service Desk charging include: (Select 3)
A. Service Entitlement
B. CPU Usage
C. Cost per Call
D. File store Usage
E. Time & Materials
Answer: A, C, E
3. True or False: EXIN & ISEB are the two organisations that provide exams in IT
Service Management.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
4. Which of the following Incident Management responsibilities is the Service
Desk responsible for ?
A. Incident Closure
B. Tracking & Communication
C. Incident Assignment
D. Incident Recording
Answer: A,B,C&D
5. Of the following classifications, what are the 3 types of Technical models that
should be considered when implementing a Service Desk ?
A. Expert
B. Outsourced
C. Competent
D. Skilled
E. Unskilled
Answer: A, D, E
6. With regard to the relationship between the Incident Management process &
the Problem Management process, validate the below statement.
"A single Incident can be tied to multiple Problems"
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
7. Within the realm of Security what do the letters C.I.A stand for.
A. Confidentiality, Intention, Analysis
B. Confidentiality, Integrity, Analysis
C. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
D. Confidentiality, Intention, Availability
Answer: C
8. Complete the Phrase. The _______ is a strategic concept that stipulates the
future direction of the company.
A. Goal
B. Vision
C. Objectives
D. Mission
Answer: B
9. ITIL refer to the implementation of a permanent fix (i.e. to a Known Error etc)
as a ___________.
A. Service Resolution
B. Structural Resolution
C. Known Error Closure
D. Work Around
Answer: B
10. With respect to cost types outlined under Financial Management for IT,
Transfer Costs refer to:
A. The Costs of transferring one CI from one physical location to another (e.g..
In the case of a Data Centre Migration).
B. The cost of goods or services sold from one Department to another.
C. The cost incurred in the transfer of one employee from one Department to
another.
D. The costs associated with all facilities management functions (e.g.. Office
Moves etc)
Answer: B
11. While engaged in a conversation about ITIL, your friend, who works for a
large organisation, advises you that Change Management and Configuration
Management are the most important processes and should be implemented first
at every organisation.
A. I agree with this comment
B. I disagree with this comment
Answer: B
12. Who is responsible for preparing Management Reports concerning Incident
Management data ?
A. The Problem Manager
B. The Service Desk manager
C. The Service Level Manager
D. The Availability Manager
Answer: B
13. A Process can be measured in such a way so as to find its effectiveness & its
efficiency.
A. I agree with the statement
B. I disagree with the statement
C. There is no difference between the 2 words.
Answer: C
14. As the Service Level Manager for a medium sized company you are
responsible for documenting the required level of service between your company
and an external supplier from whom certain support services are required. Such
a document is referred to as an
A. Service Level Agreement
B. Operational Level Agreement
C. Underpinning Contract
D. Service Catalogue
Answer: C
15. The IT Infrastructure encompasses everything that you require to deliver an
IT Service.
A. I agree with this Statement
B. I disagree with this statement
Answer: A
16. Which of the following are examples of an IT Service (Select 2)
A. Email
B. Oracle Database
C. Billing System
D. Local Area Network
Answer: A, C
17. You are putting together an Awareness Campaign for the new Problem
Management process. The following are Goals that you have jotted down
already. Select the best Goal in terms of Problem Management.
A. To minimise the impact of incidents & problems on the business that stem
from faults in the IT Infrastructure, and to prevent the reoccurrence of
incidents related to these faults.
B. To minimise the impact of incidents & problems on the business by ensuring
the identification of a work around as quick as possible and storing the
information of this work around for future reference.
C. To facilitate proactive analysis of the IT Infrastructure and identify & correct
potential faults before they impact the user community.
D. To minimise the impact of incidents & problems on the business by
implementing changes to correct IT Infrastructure problems.
Answer: A
18. You are the Application Support Manager at a large organisation. Your CRM
system has 4 revisions each year, and included in these revisions are both
technical & functional updates. Where would this be documented ?
A. Release Processes
B. Release Procedures
C. Release Schedule
D. Release Policy
Answer: D
19. Which of the following are examples of Capital Costs? (Select 2)
A. Annual maintenance cost for Middleware Software
B. Training costs for Employees
C. Purchase of a new Sun Server
D. Time spent by employees on the maintaining the existing CRM system
E. Service Provider cost for developing a new ERP System
Answer: C, E
20. The aim of __________ is to match the actual costs with the predicted costs.
A. Charging
B. Costing
C. Pricing
D. Budgeting
E. Accounting
Answer: D
21. True or False: Straight Line, Reducing Balance & By Usage are all common
methods of accessing Charging for IT Services.
A. True
B. False
22. You and your team members are discussing IT Service Continuity
Management & Business Continuity Management at your monthly strategy
meeting. One of your colleagues suggests that the risks covered by ITSCM are
not limited to those that could bring serious disruption to the business but include
also those that bring minor disruptions. What are your feelings about this
statement ?
A. I agree with this statement
B. I disagree with this statement
Answer: B
23. You have been requested to set-up a Crisis Management Team within your
organisation. With what ITIL discipline would you normally associate Crisis
Management with?
A. Problem Management
B. Availability Management
C. Capacity Management
D. IT Service Continuity Management
E. Service Level Management
Answer: D
24. Consider the following ad hoc terms & evaluate the most appropriate ITIL
discipline to match each.
1) Underpinning Contract = _________
2) CRAMM = __________
3) Total Cost of Ownership = __________
4) Application Sizing = ___________
A. Service Level Management , Capacity Management , FM for IT Services,
Release Management
B. Capacity Management, Service Level Management, Availability Management,
Problem Management
C. Service Level Management, Availability Management, IT Service Continuity
Management, Release Management
D. Service Level Management, Availability Management, FM for IT Service,
Capacity Management
Answer: D
25. A Baseline is used in which ITIL discipline ?
A. Capacity Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Availability Management
D. Change Management
Answer: B
26. Which of the following is not associated with Availability Management ?
(Select 2)
A. Kepner-Tregoe Analysis
B. Fault Tree Analysis
C. CRAMM
D. CFIA
E. Ishikawa Cause & Effect (Fishbone)
Answer: A & E
27. Which of the following in the most likely transition of events ?
A. Incident, Known Error, Problem, RFC
B. Known Error, Incident, Problem, RFC
C. RFC, Incident, Problem, Known Error
D. Incident, Problem, Known Error, RFC
Answer: D
28. You are putting together the Service Catalogue for your organisation. Which
of the following will you include ? (Select 3)
A. List of Services & Service Characteristics being provided
B. The Financial Cost of each Service
C. The Configuration Items involved in the Service Provision
D. The Customers of the Service
E. The Maintainers of the Service
Answer: A, D, E
29. Match the appropriate owner (ITIL discipline) with the following acronyms ??
I )CDB
ii) DSL
iii) SIP
iv) FSC
v) MTBF
A. Capacity Management ii) Availability Management iii) Service Level
Management iv) Configuration Management v) Incident Management
B. Configuration Management ii) Capacity Management iii) Service Level
Management iv) Change Management v) Availability Management
C. Capacity Management ii) Configuration Management iii) Service Level
Management iv) Configuration Management v) Incident Management
D. Capacity Management ii) Configuration Management iii) Service Level
Management iv) Change Management v) Availability Management
Answer: D
30. Which of the following is not a responsibility of Change Management ?
(Select 2)
A. Raising & Recording RFC's
B. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
C. Implementation of Changes
D. Reporting on Changes Implementation
E. Coordinating Change Implementation
Answer: A&C
31. True or False: One of the objectives of Capacity Management is to ensure
that IT Services are designed to deliver the levels of availability required by the
business.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
32. Which of the following statements are incorrect ? (Select 3)
A. ITIL provides a standard to which organisations can assess their Service
Management processes.
B. ITIL is flexible enough to fit any organisation.
C. ITIL guidelines should be followed regimentally. Once an organisation starts
to adapt the guidelines to fit their environment the benefits that the best
practices can bring are lost.
D. Although ITIL does consider the Business Perspective, the satisfaction of
Business requirements is not a core principal of ITIL.
Answer: A, C, D
33. True or False: The availability measurements provided to the IT Support
organisation will be the same reports provided to the Users & Business.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
34. Within Capacity Management 4 activities are carried out iteratively and form a
natural cycle. These activities are Implementation, Analysis, Monitoring & Tuning.
In what order should these activities be carried ?
A. Monitoring, Analysis, Tuning, Implementation
B. Analysis, Implementation, Tuning, Monitoring
C. Monitoring, Implementation, Tuning , Analysis
D. Implementation, Analysis, Tuning, Monitoring
Answer: A
35. Package Release is best described as a Release where:
A. All components of the Release are built, tested, distributed & implemented
altogether.
B. Only those CI's that have actually changed since the last Release are
included.
C. Individual Releases, are grouped to form a single Release
D. A Release which implies the installation of an "out of the box" solution.
Answer: C
36. True or False: A Virtual Service Desk is implemented at a central physical
location but accessed by all sites through the utilisation of advanced telephony
technology (eg. ACD Advanced Call Distribution)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
37. Which of the following statements concerning Change Management are
correct ? (Select 2)
A. Only the Change Manager is a permanent member of the CAB/EC.
B. All Changes must be reviewed by the CAB.
C. A FSC is a schedule that contains all the details of Changes Approved and
their proposed implementation date.
D. Members of the CAB are always members of the CAB/EC
Answer: A, C
38. Which function carries out most of the Incident Management process.
A. Problem Manager
B. Problem Coordinator
C. Service Desk
D. Service Level Manager
Answer: C
39. You have been engaged for the past months on the staged identification and
population of the CMDB. You are now ready to identify & populate the Desktop
CI's. Which of the following is not a CI ?
A. Monitor
B. Modem
C. Serial Number
D. Hard Drive
Answer: C
40. What does the IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL) refer to ?
A. A library in the United Kingdom where IT Books are found
B. A series of books that document industry best practice for support & delivery
of IT services
C. A storage location for IT Software also know as the Definitive Software
Library (DSL)
D. A Library which houses detailed specifications on Industry standard
Infrastructure
Answer: B
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No. 19
1. The processes that fall under the umbrella of Service Support include: (Select
3)
A. Service Desk
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. IT Service Continuity Management
E. Configuration Management
Answer: B, C, E
2. A Service Desk manager should request all users to log incidents to the
service desk by phone to ensure accurate details are recorded at the shortest
delay.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
3. In terms of Incident Management which of the following sequence of steps are
correct.
A. Incident - Known Error - Problem - RFC
B. Incident - Problem - Known Error - RFC
C. Known Error - Incident - Problem - RFC
D. Incident - Known Error - RFC - Problem
Answer: B
4. True or False: It is important to implement Configuration Management with
Change & Release Management.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
5. ACD, CTI & IVR are all technologies that assist the ______ .
A. ICT Management
B. Desktop Services
C. Service Desk
D. Availability Management activities
Answer: C
6. Which of the following is an Input to the Problem Management process ?
A. Major Incidents
B. Trend Analysis
C. CMDB
D. Known Errors
E. All of the above
7. Having implemented the ITIL Service Management Processes at your
organisation, you do not need to concern yourself about any process related
issues. The ITIL processes will ensure successful operations.
A. I agree with this statement
B. I disagree with this statement
Answer: B
8. True or False: SIP stands for Service Improvement Program.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
9. True or False: Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) refers to the mean
elapsed time between the occurrence of an incident to the restoration of the
service.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
10. TCO is an acronym for
A. Technical Change Ownership
B. Total Cost of Ownership
C. Total Cost of Operations
D. Technical Cost of Operations
Answer: B
11. Problem Management should be implemented with or after Change
Management.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
12. Which of the following is not likely to be an input for the Change Management
process ?
A. RFC's
B. CMDB Information
C. Incident Information
D. Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)
Answer: C
13. Service Level Requirements are drawn up by _____________, and serves
as the basis for negotiations concerning the formulation of the ________.
A. Business ; OLA
B. Service Level Manager ; OLA
C. Business ; SLA
D. Service Level Manager ; SLA
Answer: D
14. Planning, Implementation, Control, Status Accounting & Verification are all
activities of which discipline:
A. Financial Management for IT Services
B. Capacity Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Change Management
Answer: C
15. The Release Management process shares very close relations with which of
the following processes ? (Select 2)
A. Change Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Problem Management
E. Service Level Management
Answer : A, B
16. What would not be a task for the Service Desk ?
A. Managing the Changes for a certain IT Service
B. Providing Incident Management Reports
C. Establishing User Accounts
D. Granting low level access rights
Answer: A
17. True or False: You subscribe to the latest ITSM Publication issued monthly at
a cost of $50 p/a. This is an example of an Operational Cost ?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
18. Although Financial Management for IT Services interacts with most IT service
processes it is most closely linked with which of the following (Select 3).
A. Capacity Management
B. Configuration Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Service Level Management
E. Availability Management
F. Change Management
Answer: A, B, D
19. True or False: With Notional Charging an invoice is produced and payment is
required where as with Real Charging an invoice is produced but no payment is
required ?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
20. At a job interview for an IT Service Continuity Manager position, the CTO
asks you to run through the 4 stages of the Business Continuity Lifecycle. What
is the correct sequence of phases ?
1. 1. Requirements & Strategy 2. Initiation 3. Implementation 4.
Operational Management
2. 1.Operational Management 2. Initiation 3. Requirements & Strategy
4. Implementation
3. 1. Implementation 2. Initiation 3. Operational Management 4.
Requirements & Strategy
4. 1. Initiation 2. Requirements & Strategy 3. Implementation 4.
Operational Management
Answer: 4
21. Consider the following statements:
1) IT Service Continuity forms part of the overall Business Continuity Process
2) Business Continuity Management is concerned with ensuring the continuation
of the Critical Business Processes in the event of a disaster.
3) Testing is a critical part of the overall ITSCM process.
A. Only statement 1 is true
B. Both 1 & 3 are true
C. All statements are correct
D. Only statement 2 is correct
Answer: C
22. Which ITIL discipline aims to maintain & improve IT Service quality through a
regular cycle of agreeing, monitoring & reporting.
A. Capacity Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Release Management
E. Availability Management
Answer: C
23. Which of the following is not a benefit of SLM ? (Select 2)
A. Accurate cost information to support IT Investment
B. Improved Service quality through Remedial action identified through
continued Service Monitoring.
C. Improved IT Service Design to meet SLR's
D. Reduced business impact caused by Incidents through timely resolution.
Answer: A& D
24. Which of the following are responsibilities of the Service Desk ? (Select 3)
A. Incident Matching
B. Incident cause analysis
C. Provider Users with progress updates
D. Updating the Known Error Database
E. Functional Escalation
Answer: A, C, E
25. Match the following Recovery periods with the relevant Recovery Option.
i) > 72 hours
ii) 24 - 72 hours
iii) < 24 hours
A. Immediate Recovery = i Intermediate Recovery = ii Gradual Recovery = iii
B. Immediate Recovery = ii Intermediate Recovery = i Gradual Recovery = iii
C. Immediate Recovery = iii Intermediate Recovery = ii Gradual Recovery = i
D. Immediate Recovery = i Intermediate Recovery = iii Gradual Recovery = ii
Answer: C
26. Which process is responsible for ensuring the CMDB is updated following a
new Operating System Patch of some Unix Servers ?
A. ICT Management
B. Incident Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Change Management
27. The Ishikawa Diagram or Cause & Effect Analysis (Fishbone)is a technique
employed by which ITIL Discipline ?
A. Incident Management
B. Availability Management
C. Problem Management
D. Capacity Management
E. Service Level Management
Answer: C
28. The Service Management processes put forth by ITIL are suited to
implementation in:
A. Large Organisations (>1000 Employees)
B. Mid sized organisation ( 200 > 1000 Employees)
C. Small organisation (<200 Employees)
D. Organisations of any size
Answer: D
29. The Service Support Processes & the Service Delivery Processes have no
overlap with each other.
A. I agree with this statement.
B. I disagree with this statement.
Answer: B
30. It is the Configuration Manager that grants permission for changes to be
made to CI's
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
31. Which of the following are not objectives of the Availability Management
process ? (Select 2)
A. Create & maintain a forward looking Availability Plan
B. Ensure shortfalls in IT Capacity & recognised & appropriate corrective actions
taken.
C. Acheive over a period of time a reduction in the frequency & duration of
Incidents that impact IT Availability
D. Develop & maintain meaningful records relating to Incidents
E. Optimise the Availability of IT Infrastructure to deliver cost efficient
improvements.
Answer: A&C
32. What does BS15000 refer to?
A. This is the code given to a company when they are "ITIL Compliant"
B. British Standard for Service Management
C. A method of Quality Management used within the Availability Management
processes.
D. An ISO standard for Service Management
Answer: B
33. An AMDB is associated with what ITIL discipline ?
A. Capacity Management
B. Availability Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Change Management
E. Configuration Management
Answer: B
34. True or False: Service Outage Analysis (SOA) is a technique used within
Availability Management to help identify opportunities for Availability
improvement.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
35. 1. The processes that fall under the umbrella of Service Delivery (Select 3)
1. Service Delivery
2. Availability Management
3. Release Management
4. IT Service Continuity Management
5. Configuration Management
Answer: 1, 2, 4
36. Select the 3 sub-processes of Capacity Management ?
A. Service Capacity Management
B. Application Capacity Management
C. Technical Capacity Management
D. Resource Capacity Management
E. Business Capacity Management
Answer: A, D, E
37. Completed the following statement.
The priority of an Incident is primarily determined by the ________ on the
business & the _______ with which the resolution or Work-around is needed.
A. Impact, Availability
B. Urgency, Impact
C. Urgency, Availability
D. Impact, Urgency
Answer: D
38.A Change Model is best defined as:
A. A standard way of dealing with all Changes irrespective of their type or
complexity.
B. A standard way of dealing with Changes of a specific type or complexity.
C. A standard way of dealing with Major Changes only.
D. A standard way of dealing with Minor Changes only.
Answer: B
39. Match the Availability Measurement with the correct definition:
MEASUREMENTS:
1. MTTR
2. MTBF
3. MTBSI
4. MTTF
DEFINITIONS:
A. The mean elapsed time from the time an IT Service or component is fully
restored until the next occurrence of a failure in the same service.
B. Mean elapsed time between the occurrence of one system or service failure
and the next.
C. Averaged elapsed time from the occurrence of an incident to the repair of the
failed component.
D. The elapsed time between the occurrence of an Incident to the restoration of a
service.
1. 1A,2B,3C,4D
2. 1D,2A,3C,4B
3. 1D,2A,3B,4C
4. 1A,2B,3D,4C
40. Which of the following statements are true ? (Select 2)
A. Company culture plays an important role in the successful implementation &
maintaining of Service Management
B. Management commitment is not a key factor when it comes to successfully
implementing Service Management. As long as there is at least some
recognition of the benefits Service Management would bring, that should be
sufficient.
C. "Service Culture" refers to the internally held culture within an organisation to
ensure that the Customer is fully satisfied.
D. One of the benefits of implementing Service Management is that the
processes are so well defined so there is no real need to train individuals. By
following the processes, this will ensure that the customer is satisfied.
Answer: A, C
ITIL Foundation Practice Exam
Version No. 20
1. True or False: Typically a Help Desk, Service Desk & Call Centre all provide
the same level of service. They are just different names referring to the single
point of contact.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
2. Your organisation is currently undertaking a project to deliver a new CRM
system. What process will be used to better identify what the business
requirements are for IT ?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Release Management
D. Service Level Management
E. Incident Management
Answer: A
3. Which of the following are difficulties that may be faced when implementing a
CMDB ?
A. Management Commitment & Funding.
B. Relaxed Procurement policies leading to unrecorded Purchases.
C. Unwillingness to adopt new procedures from support staff.
D. Processes & procedures are viewed as being to bureaucratic
Answer: All of the above
4. Which of the following is an Output of the Problem Management Process ?
A. Known Error Records
B. Major Incident Reports
C. RFC's
D. Problems Records
E. All of the above
Answer: E
5. Complete the Phrase: The _________ is defined as the person using the
service on a daily basis ?
A. Customer
B. User
C. Supplier
D. Provider
E. None of the above
Answer: B
6. Identify the 5 Service Delivery processes outlined by ITIL ?
A. Availability, Incident, Service Desk, Change & Configuration
B. Availability, Capacity, Financial Management for IT Services, IT Service
Continuity, Service Level Management
C. Availability, Change, Financial Management for IT Services, IT Service
Continuity, Release Management
D. Problem, Incident, Release, Change & Configuration Management
Answer: B
7. Which of the following is an example of Functional Escalation ?
A. Service Desk re-assign an Incident to the 2nd level support team for further
analysis.
B. The Service Desk Manager contacts the 2nd level support team's Manager to
highlight the need for resource assignment.
C. The Service Level Manager contacting the Business Service Owner to ensure
correct functionality of the service.
Answer: A
8. What is the difference between the DSL, DHS & CMDB? Select the most
appropriate answer:
A. The DSL & DHS store the information & license details about CI's where as
the CMDB stores the physical products.
B. The CMDB is the centralised store for all the information about CI's. The DSL
& DHS are sub-directories of this DB.
C. The DSL & DHS are physical stores for an organisation relevant s/w & h/w
where as the CMDB stores the information about these items.
D. There is no real difference between the 3 stores.
Answer: C
9. Some usual Metrics within the Change Management Process include: (Select
3)
A. The total number of Changes implemented over a given period.
B. The proportion of unsuccessful changes made over a certain period.
C. The number of RFC rejected
D. The number of Known Errors identified over a given period.
E. The total number of Incidents matched of a certain period.
Answer: A, B, C
10. UPC's, SLA's & OLA's will all be documented by what function.
A. Service Desk Manager
B. Problem Manager
C. Service Level Manager
D. Release Manager
E. The Service Level
Answer: C
11.True or False: It is the responsibility of the Service Desk Manager to maintain
the Known Error records.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
12. Whilst attending the IT Service Management Forum's (ITSMF) latest
conference a colleague working in the same industry as you advises that when
setting up a CMDB it is absolutely essential for every company to start by
recording every detail about every CI you have within your organisation "no
matter how big or small". What are your thoughts on this:
A. I agree with this statement. The more information you can record about the CI
the better.
B. I disagree with this statement. Not every single detail about a CI needs to be
recorded.
C. I would need to consult with my Manager as he has implemented a CMDB
before.
Answer: B
13. What does the acronym KPI stand for ?
A. Key Performance Initiatives
B. Key Profitability Indicators
C. Key Performance Indicators
D. Key Performance Identification
Answer: C
14. Proposed Changes to an IT Service need not follow the Change
Management Process if they are to be implemented as a Release. The Release
Management Process will ensure control Over the Changes required.
A. I agree with this statement
B. I disagree with this statement
Answer: B
15. Which sub-process of Capacity Management is concerned with the
management of the individual components of the IT Infrastructure ?
A. Business Capacity Management
B. Service Capacity Management
C. Resource Capacity Management
D. None of the above
Answer: C
16. What is the name given to the type of charging where no money is
exchanged inter-departmentally. (particularly between the IT Department & the
customer) ?
A. Market Rate Charging
B. Charge Back
C. Cost per Call Charging
D. Notional Charging
Answer: D
17. Which process is concerned with accurately identifying the cost of providing
an IT service ?
A. Service Level Management
B. Availability Management
C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. Capacity Management
E. Release Management
Answer: C
18. Payroll costs, relocation costs & overtime are all Cost Elements of the _____
cost type where as applications, databases & operating systems are all Cost
Elements of the _____ cost type.
A. Transfer, Software
B. People, External Service
C. People, Software
D. Transfer, External Service
Answer: C
19. _____________ aims to identify the potential losses an organisation may
incur in the event of a disaster or service disruption.
A. Service Improvement Program
B. Availability Analysis
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. Critical Business Processes
Answer: B
20. The Business have submitted requirements for a new ERP system. Which
discipline is responsible for documenting the Service Level Requirements (SLR's)
with the Business Representative ?
A. Service Level Management
B. Release Management
C. Project Management
D. Capacity Management
Answer: A
21.You are discussing Incident Management with some Business colleagues
from Finance. They ask you to define an Incident. What is the most appropriate
definition ?
A. A Request for Change
B. An fault which does not cause impact to a Service
C. An event for which there is a known work around
D. An event that causes a disruption to a Service
Answer: D
22. When implementing ITIL Best Practice processes, it is necessary to change
the organisation's structure.
A. I agree with this statement
B. I disagree with this statement
Answer: B
23. ITIL is owned by the IT Service Management Forum (itSMF) based in the
United Kingdom
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
24. You have been asked to ensure that all details concerning support groups,
users & SLA's for each Service are maintained within your organisations CMDB.
What are your thoughts on this.
A. The request is valid, it is best practice to store this information /
documentation in the CMDB
B. The request is not valid. Placing such documentation into the CMDB is not
needed.
Answer: A
25. Your company writes off a set percentage of an IT Asset each year. This
implies that you use which type of Depreciation ?
A. Straight Line Method
B. Reducing Balance
C. By Usage
D. Planned Percentile
Answer: B
26. Which of the following is not an SLA structure as defined by ITIL. (Select 2)
A. Customer Based
B. Service Based
C. Segment Based
D. Component Based
E. Multi-Level
Answer: C, D
27. The goal of ____________ is to optimise the capability of the IT
infrastructure, services & supporting organisation to deliver a cost effective &
sustained level of availability that enables the business to satisfy its objectives.
A. Problem Management
B. Capacity Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Availability Management
E. None of the above
Answer: D
28. Some of the benefits that may be enjoyed by an organisation that adopts the
ITIL best practice framework include: (Select 3)
A. Improved Communication between the Business & IT.
B. Increase in Sales of the organisations products or services.
C. Fewer failed changes and able to absorb a higher rate of changes.
D. Continuous improvement in the delivery of quality IT Services.
Answer: A, C, D
29. What does ITAMM stand for ?
A. IT Availability Metrics & Methodology
B. IT Availability Metrics Model
C. IT Availability Maintenance Model
D. IT Availability Management Model
Answer: B
30. True or False: Activities within the Capacity Management process are all
reactive.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
31. A Known Error is best defined as ?
A. An Incident or Problem for which the root cause is still under investigation but
a work around does exist.
B. An Incident or Problem for which the root cause is known but for which a work
around is still not known
C. An Incident or Problem for which the root cause is known and for which
a temporary work around has been identified.
D. An Incident or Problem for which the root cause is not yet known but for which
a temporary work around has been identified.
32. Which of the following are examples of Service Requests ? (Select 3)
A. Request to change a password
B. Request to extend Service Hours
C. Request to add more Memory to Desktop PC.
D. Request to add more Memory to a Server
E. Request to resolve MS Exchange connectivity issue.
Answer: A,B & C
33. Which of these various Techniques does Availability Management use ?
A. Ishikawa Technique
B. Component Failure Impact Analysis
C. Fault Tree Analysis
D. Kepner-Tregoe Route Cause Analysis
E. CRAMM
Answer: B
34. Which of these various Techniques does Problem Management use ?
A. Kepner-Tregoe Route Cause Analysis
B. CRAMM
C. Fault Tree Analysis
D. Ishikawa Technique
Answer: D
35. What does CAB/EC stand for ?
A. Change Advisory Board/Evaluation Committee
B. Change Advisory Board/Emergency Committee
C. Change Advisory Board/Emergency Control
D. Change Advisory Board/Executive Committee
Answer: B
36. True or False; All Changes should be reviewed by Change Management
following a predefined period after implementation.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
37. Back-out plans should be provided for which of the following types of
Releases ?
1. Delta
2. Package
3. Full
A. 2 only
B. 2 & 3
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
Answer: D
38. A Release is best described as:
A. A collection of authorised Changes to an IT Service.
B. The portion of the IT infrastructure that is normally released together.
C. The delivery, installation & commissioning of an integrated set of new or
changed CI's across logical or physical parts of an organisation.
Answer: A
39. Complete the following statement correctly :
The _____should be used to co-ordinate all IT Service improvement
opportunities into an overall programme of improvement activities.
A. SIP ( Service Improvement plan )
B. Availability plan
Answer: A
40. Consider the following statements :
1. The monitoring of performance and throughput of IT Services and the
supporting Infrastructure components
2. Undertaking tuning activities to make the most efficient use of existing
resources
3. understanding the demands currently being made for IT resources and
producing forecasts for future requirements
4. Influencing the demand for resource, perhaps in conjunction with Financial
Management
5. The production of a Plan which enables the IT Service provider to provide
services of the quality defined in Service Level Agreements (SLAs).
Which of the ITIL Process are these statements DIRECTLY relate to ?
A. Service Level Management
B. Availability Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Capacity Management
E. Problem Management
Answer: D